Revised Laws of Saint Lucia (2023)

Schedule

(Regulations)

CONTENTS

PART 1

GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, AND DEFINITIONS

1.1     RULES OF CONSTRUCTION

     1.1.1.1     APPLICABILITY

     (a)     These Regulations shall apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following —

     (1)     an aircraft registered in Saint Lucia;

     (2)     an aircraft registered in another Contracting State that is operated by a person licenced by Saint Lucia, and must be maintained in accordance with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry, wherever that maintenance is performed;

     (3)     an aircraft of other Contracting States operating in Saint Lucia.

     (b)     These Regulations addressing persons certificated under any Part of these Regulations apply also to any person who engages in an operation governed by any Part of these Regulations without the appropriate certificate, operations specification, or similar document required as part of the certification.

     (c)     The regulations addressing general matters establish minimum standards for all aircraft operated in Saint Lucia. Specific standards applicable to the holder of a certificate shall apply if they conflict with a more general regulation.

     (d)     All foreign air operators who conduct commercial air transport into, from or within Saint Lucia, shall be governed by the provisions of the Operations Specification issued by the Authority, and by those provisions in Parts 7, 8, and 10 that specifically address commercial air transport. Regulations that address AOC holders apply only to operators certificated by Saint Lucia.

     1.1.1.2     ORGANISATION OF REGULATIONS

     (a)     This Schedule is subdivided into five hierarchical categories —

     (1)     Part refers to the primary subject area.

     (2)     Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Part.

     (3)     Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart.

     (4)     Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision of a Subpart or Section,

     (5)     Paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs are outlined alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i), (A).

     (b)     Definitions used throughout these Regulations are organised as follows —

     (1)     all Definitions appear in Part 1, Subsection 1.1.13; and

     (2)     definitions contained in the Civil Aviation Act of Saint Lucia are presented therein, and not in these Regulations

     (c)     Acronyms used within each Part are defined at the beginning of those Parts and if a definition is supplied, a note will indicate the Part where the definition is located.

     (d)     Notes appear in Subsections to provide exceptions, explanations and examples to individual requirements.

     (e)     Subsections may refer to Implementing Standards, which provide additional detailed requirements that support the purpose of the subsection, and where specifically referenced by the subsection, gain the legal force and effect of the referring subsection. The rules of construction, Subsection 1.1.1.1, apply to Implementing Standards.

     1.1.1.3     DEFINITIONS

     (a)     For the purpose of these Regulations, the following definitions shall apply —

     (1)     “Acceptable means of compliance” means a method of accomplishing a specific task where the method has been approved by the Authority;

     (2)     “Acceptance checklist” as it relates to dangerous goods means a document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met;

     (3)     “Acclimatised” means when a crewmember has spent 3 consecutive local nights on the ground within a time zone, which is 2 hours wide and is able to take uninterrupted nights sleep. The crewmember will remain acclimatised thereafter until a duty period finishes at a place where local time differs by more than 2 hours from that at the point of departure;

     (4)     “Accountable manager” means —

     (a)     the person who has corporate authority for ensuring that all prescribed actions are performed to the standard required by the Authority; and

     (b)     any other person within the organisation who the accountable manager, on approval by the Authority, may delegate in writing all or part of his responsibility;

     (5)     “Accountable manager (Maintenance)” means the manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modification required by the aircraft owner/operator can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate to another person in the organisation, in writing, to become the accountable manager, when authorised by the Authority;

     (6)     “Accountable manager (training)” means the manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all training can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate, in writing, to another person in the organisation to become the accountable manager when authorised by the Authority;

     (7)     “Accredited medical conclusion” means the conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the Authority for the      purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with other experts as necessary;

     (8)     “Accredited representative” As it relates to an aircraft accident, means a person designated by a State, on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the purpose of participating in an investigation conducted by another party;

     (9)     “ADS agreement” means an ADS reporting plan that establishes the conditions of ADS data reporting (i.e. data required by the air traffic services or control unit and frequency of ADS reports that have to be agreed to prior to the provision of the ADS services);

     (10)     “ADS contract” means by which the terms of an ADS agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, specifying under what conditions ADS reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.

Note.—The term “ADS contract” is a generic term meaning variously, ADS event contract, ADS demand contract, ADS periodic contract or an emergency mode. Ground forwarding of ADS reports may be implemented between ground systems;

     (11)     “Advanced flight training device” means a flight training device that has a cockpit that accurately replicates a specific make, model, and type of aircraft cockpit, and handling characteristics that accurately model the aircraft handling characteristics;

     (12)     “Advisor” As it relates to an aircraft accident, means a person appointed by a State on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the purpose of assisting its accredited representative in an investigation;

     (13)     “Advisory airspace” means an airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available;

     (14)     “Advisory route” means a designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available;

     (15)     “Aerial work” means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc;

     (16)     “Aerobatic/acrobatic flight” means manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in speed not necessary for normal flight;

     (17)     “Aerodrome” means a defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part, for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft;

     (18)     “Aerodrome control service” means air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic;

     (19)     “Aerodrome control tower” means a unit established to provide air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic;

     (20)     “Aerodrome operating minima” means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for —

     (a)     take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions;

     (b)     landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the category of the operation;

     (c)     landing in approach and landing operations with vertical guidance, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H); and

     (d)     landing in non-precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions;

     (21)     “Aerodrome traffic zone” means an airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic;

     (22)     “Aeronautical experience” means pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight-training device for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these Regulations;

     (23)     “Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)” is a publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation;

     (24)     “Aeronautical product” means any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or subassembly, appliance, material, part, or component to be installed thereon;

     (25)     “Aeronautical Station” is a land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea;

     (26)     “Aeroplane” means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;

     (27)     “Aeroplane flight manual” means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aeroplane is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members on the safe operation of the aeroplane;

     (28)     “Agricultural aircraft operation” means the operation of an aircraft for the purpose of —

     (i)     Dispensing any substance intended for plant nourishment, soil treatment, propagation of plant life, or pest control, or

     (ii)     Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture, horticulture, or forest preservation, but not including the dispensing of live insects;

     (29)     “Air-ground control radio station” means an aeronautical telecommunication station having primary responsibility for handling communications pertaining to the operation and control of aircraft in a given area;

     (30)     “Air navigation facility” means any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather information, for signalling, for radio directional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication, and any other structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and take-off of aircraft;

     (31)     “Air Operator” means any organisation which undertakes to engage in commercial air transport, whether directly or indirectly or by a lease or any other arrangement;

     (32)     “Air operator certificate (AOC)” means a certificate authorizing an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations;

     (33)     “Air-taxiing” means movement of a helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an aerodrome, normally in ground effect and at a ground speed normally less than 37km/h (20kt);

Note.—the actual height may vary, and some helicopters may require air-taxiing above 8m (25ft) AGL to reduce ground effect turbulence or provide clearance for cargo slingloads;

     (34)     “Air traffic” means all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

     (35)     “Air traffic advisory service” means a service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans;

     (36)     “Air Traffic Control” means a service that promotes the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic at aerodromes and during the approach, departure, and en route environments;

     (37)     “Air traffic control clearance” means authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit;

     (38)     “Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility” means a building holding the persons and equipment responsible for providing ATC services (e.g., airport tower, approach control, centre). May also be called air traffic control unit;

     (39)     “Air traffic control service” means a service provided for the purpose of —

     (a)     preventing collisions between —

     1.     between aircraft;

     2.     on the manoeuvring area, between aircraft and obstructions; and

     (b)     expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic;

     (40)     “Air traffic control unit” is a generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control unit or aerodrome control tower;

     (41)     “Air traffic services airspaces” means airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically designated, within which specific types of flights may operate and for which air traffic services and rules of operation are specified;

     (42)     “Air traffic services reporting office” means a unit established for the purpose of receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before departure;

     (43)     “Air traffic services unit” is a generic term meaning variously, air traffic control unit, flight information centre or air traffic services reporting office;

     (44)     “Airborn collision avoidance system (ACAS)” is an aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders;

     (45)     “Aircraft” means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface;

     (46)     “Aircraft accident” means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, in which —

     •     A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of —

          Being in the aircraft;

          Direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached from the aircraft; or

          Direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew.

     •     The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible;

     (47)     “Aircraft avionics” means a term designating any electronic device – including its electrical part – for use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control and instrument systems;

     (48)     “Aircraft category” means the classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics (e.g., aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon);

     (49)     “Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation” means a type of aircraft which the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one pilot;

     (50)     “Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation” means a type of aircraft which the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew of two pilots;

     (51)     “Aircraft component” means any component part of an aircraft up to and including a complete powerplant or any operational/emergency equipment;

     (52)     “Aircraft engine” means any engine used, or intended to be used, for propulsion of aircraft and includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than propellers;

     (53)     “Aircraft operating manual” means a manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator, containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft systems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft;

     (54)     “Aircraft piracy” means any actual or attempted seizure or exercise of control, by force or violence, or by any other form of intimidation, with wrongful intent, of an aircraft within the jurisdiction of Saint Lucia;

     (55)     “Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot” means a type of aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate;

     (56)     “Aircraft type” means all aircraft of the same basic design;

     (57)     “Aircraft Technical Log” means a document carried on an aircraft for recording defects and malfunctions discovered during operation and for recording details of all maintenance carried out whilst the aircraft is operating between scheduled visits to the base maintenance facility. It also contains operating information relevant to flight safety and maintenance data that the operating crew need to know. A technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft maintenance record section;

     (58)     “Airframe” means the fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of a powerplant), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories and controls;

     (59)     “Airman” This term refers to —

     •     Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as pilot, mechanic, or member of the crew, or who navigates an aircraft while the aircraft is underway;

     •     Any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft, and any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances; or

     •     Any individual who serves in the capacity of flight operations officer;

     (60)     “Airmanship” means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives;

     (61)     “Airship” means a power driven lighter-than-air aircraft;

     (62)     “Airway” means a control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor;

     (63)     “Airworthiness data” means any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in a condition such that airworthiness of the aircraft, or serviceability of operational and emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured;

     (64)     “Airworthiness directive” is continuing airworthiness information that applies to the following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances. An airworthiness directive is mandatory if issued by the State of Design;

     (65)     “Airworthiness release” is a certification signed by a licenced mechanic indicating that work was performed in accordance with the maintenance manual, was inspected by a licenced mechanic, and the aircraft was found satisfactory for safe operation;

     (66)     “Alerting service” means a service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required;

     (67)     “Alteration” The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an approved standard;

     (68)     “Alternate Aerodrome” means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing. Alternate aerodromes include the following —

Take-off alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.

En-route alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route;

ETOPS en-route alternate. A suitable and appropriate alternate aerodrome at which an aeroplane would be able to land after experiencing an engine shutdown or other abnormal or emergency condition while en route in an ETOPS operation;

Destination alternate. An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

Note.—The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight;

     (69)     “Alternate Heliport” means a heliport to which a helicopter may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the heliport of intended landing. Alternate heliports include the following:

Take-off alternate. An alternate heliport at which a helicopter can land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the heliport of departure.

En-route alternate. A heliport at which a helicopter would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route.

Destination alternate. An alternate heliport to which a helicopter may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the heliport of intended landing.

Note.—The heliport from which a flight departs may be an en-route or a destination alternate heliport for that flight;

     (70)     “Altimetry system error (ASE)” means the difference between the altitude indicated by the altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbed ambient pressure;

     (71)     “Altitude” means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL);

     (72)     “AMT Course” means a training course for AMT maintenance ratings (airframe/powerplant);

     (73)     “Annexes to the Chicago Convention” means the documents issued by the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) containing the Standards and Recommended Practices applicable to civil aviation;

     (74)     “Anticipated operating conditions” means the conditions which are known from experience or which can be reasonably envisaged to occur during the operational life of the aircraft, taking into account the operations for which the aircraft is made eligible, the conditions so considered being relative to the meteorological state of the atmosphere, to the configuration of terrain, to the functioning of the aircraft, to the efficiency of personnel and to all the factors affecting safety in flight. Anticipated operating conditions do not include —

     (a)     those extremes which can be effectively avoided by means of operating procedures; and

     (b)     those extremes which occur so infrequently that to require the Standards to be met in such extremes would give a higher level of airworthiness than experience has shown to be necessary and practical;

     (75)     “Anti-collision light” means —

     (a)     in relation to a rotorcraft, a flashing red light;

     (b)     in relation to any other aircraft, a flashing red or flashing white light;

Note.—in both cases, the light shall be showing in all directions for the purpose of enabling the aircraft to be more readily detected by pilots of distant aircraft;

     (76)     “Appliances” means Instruments, equipment, apparatus, parts, appurtenances, or accessories, of whatever description, which are used, or are capable of being or intended to be used, in the navigation, operation, or control of aircraft in flight (including parachutes and including communication equipment and any other mechanism or mechanisms installed in or attached to aircraft during flight), and which are not part or parts of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers;

     (77)     “Approach and landing phase – helicopters” means that part of the flight from 300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the commencement of the descent in the other cases, to landing or to the balked landing point;

     (78)     “Appropriate authority”;

Regarding flight over the high seas, means the relevant authority of the State of Registry;

Regarding flight other than over the high seas, means the relevant authority of the State having sovereignty over the territory being overflown;

     (79)     “Approach and landing operations using instrument approach procedures”. Instrument approach and landing operations are classified as follows:

Non-precision approach and landing operations, means an instrument approach and landing which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance;

Approach and landing operations with vertical guidance. means an instrument approach and landing which utilizes lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet the requirements established for precision approach and landing operations;

Precision approach and landing operations, means an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

Note.—Lateral and vertical guidance refers to the guidance provided either by —

     (a)     a ground-based navigation aid; or

     (b)     computer generated navigation data.

Categories of precision approach and landing operations: Category I (CAT I) operation. means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m;

Category II (CAT II) operation. means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower than 30 m (100 ft), and a runway visual range not less than 350 m;

Category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation. means a precision instrument approach and landing with —

     (a)     a decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no decision height; and

     (b)     a runway visual range not less than 200 m;

Category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation. means a precision instrument approach and landing with —

     (a)     a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft) or no decision height; and

     (b)     a runway visual range less than 200 m but not less than 50 m;

Category IIIC (CAT IIIC) operation. means a precision instrument approach and landing with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations;

Note.—Where decision height (DH) and runway visual range (RVR) fall into different categories of operation, the instrument approach and landing operation would be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the most demanding category (e.g. an operation with a DH in the range of CAT IIIA but with an RVR in the range of CAT IIIB would be considered a CAT IIIB operation or an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II but with an RVR in the range of CAT I would be considered a CAT II operation);

     (80)     “Approach control service” means air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights;

     (81)     “Approach control unit” means a unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights arriving at, or departing from, one or more aerodromes;

     (82)     “Appropriate airworthiness requirements” means the comprehensive and detailed airworthiness codes established, adopted or accepted by a Contracting State for the class of aircraft, engine or propeller under consideration;

     (83)     “Appropriate ATS or ATC authority” means the relevant authority designated by Saint Lucia responsible for providing air traffic services in the airspace concerned;

     (84)     “Approval for return to service” means a certification by an appropriately approved person that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification performed on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part thereof was accomplished using the methods, techniques, and practices, prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or by using other methods, techniques, and practices approved by the Authority;

     (85)     “Approved” means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written approval;

     (86)     “Approved by the Authority” means approved by the Authority directly or in accordance with a procedure approved by the Authority;

     (87)     “Approved data” means technical information approved by the Authority;

     (88)     “Approved continuous maintenance program” means a maintenance program approved by the State of Registry;

     (89)     “Approved Maintenance Organisation (AMO)” means an organisation approved to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the Authority. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul, maintenance, repair or modification and release to service of aircraft or aeronautical products;

     (90)     “Approved standard” means a manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality standard approved by the Authority;

     (91)     “Approved Training Organisation (ATO)” means an organisation approved by the Authority, to perform flight crew training and other training approved by the Authority;

     (92)     “Approved training” means training carried out under special curricula and supervision approved by the Authority;

     (93)     “Apron” means a defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of fuelling, parking, maintenance, loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo;

     (94)     “Area control centre” means a unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction;

     (95)     “Area control service” means air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas.

     (96)     “Area Navigation (RNAV)” means a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these;

     (97)     “Article” means any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system, subsystem, component, unit, product, or part;

     (98)     “ATS or ATC route” means a specified route designed for channeling the flow of air traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services, defined by route specifications that include an ATS or ATC route designator, the track to or from significant points (way points), distance between significant points, reporting requirements, and as determined by the appropriate ATS or ATC authority, the lowest safe altitude;

     (99)     “Authorised instructor” means a person who —

     (i)     holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under Part 2 when conducting ground training;

     (ii)     holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under Part 2 when conducting ground training or flight training; or

     (iii)     is authorised by the Authority to provide ground training or flight training under Part 2 and Part 3;

     (100)     “Authorized person” means any person authorized by the Minister either generally or in relation to a particular case of class of cases, and references to a person authorized by the Minister include reference to the holder, for the time being, of any office designated by the Minister;

     (101)     “Authority” means the civil aviation authority responsible for the oversight of civil aviation in Saint Lucia;

     (102)     “Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS)” means a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate;

     (103)     “Automatic dependent surveillance – broadcase (ADS-B)” is a means by which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit or receive data such as identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in broadcast mode via a data link;

     (104)     “Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C)” is a means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports;

     (105)     “Aviation Maintenance Technician” means a person approved by the Authority to perform defined maintenance on aeronautical products; the term “aviation maintenance technician” as used herein can include persons similarly qualified and referred to as “licenced mechanic,” “certificated (certified) mechanic,” “aviation maintenance engineer,” “licenced engineer,” or by other terms, all of which mean an aviation maintenance licence holder;

     (106)     “Balloon” means a non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft;

     (107)     “Banner” means an advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached externally to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft;

     (108)     “Cabin Crew” means a person employed to facilitate the safety of passengers, whose duties are detailed by the AOC holder or the aircraft commander;

     (109)     “Cabin crew member” means a crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall not act as a flight crew member;

     (110)     “Calendar day” means the period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the next midnight;

     (111)     “Calendar month” means a period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered month (as January 1 through January 31 in the Gregorian calendar);

     (112)     “Calendar year” means a period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered year (as January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian calendar);

     (113)     “Calibration” means a set of operations, performed in accordance with a definite documented procedure that compares the measurement performed by a measurement device or working standard with a recognised bureau of standards for the purpose of detecting and reporting or eliminating adjustment errors in the measurement device, working standard, or aeronautical product tested;

     (114)     “Cargo” includes mail and animals;

     (115)     “Cargo aircraft” means any aircraft carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this context the following are not considered to be passengers —

     (i)     a crewmember;

     (ii)     an operator's employee permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the instructions contained in the Operations Manual;

     (iii)     an authorised representative of an Authority;

     (iv)     a person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on board;

     (116)     “Causes” As it relates to an aircraft accident or incident means actions, omissions, events, conditions, or a combination which led to the accident or incident. (ICAO Annex 13);

     (117)     “Ceiling” means the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6,000 metres (20,000 feet) covering more than half the sky;

     (118)     “Certificated Approved Maintenance Organisation” means approved by the Authority;

     (119)     “Certificate of airworthiness” includes any validation thereof and any flight manual, performance schedule or other document, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificate relating to the certificate of airworthiness;

     (120)     “Certify as airworthy” means the required maintenance record entry completed by a properly authorised person after the modification, overhaul, repair, or the inspection of an aircraft, or aeronautical product required by the Authority;

     (121)     “Certifying staff” means those personnel who are appropriately authorised by a procedure approved by the Authority to certify aircraft or aircraft components for release to service;

     (122)     “CFIT (Controlled flight into terrain)” Occurs when an airworthy aircraft is flown, under the control of a qualified pilot, into terrain (water or obstacles) with inadequate awareness on the part of the pilot of the impending collision;

     (123)     “Change-over- point” means the point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATC route segment defined by reference to very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges is expected to transfer its primary navigational references from the facility behind the aircraft to the next facility ahead of the aircraft;

     (124)     “Chicago Convention” (“Convention”) means the Convention on International Civil Aviation concluded in Chicago, U.S.A. in 1944, in effect, 1947. The Articles of the Chicago Convention govern the actions of the contracting States in matters of international civil aviation directly and through the Annexes to the Convention, which set forth ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices;

     (125)     “Check airman (aeroplane)” means a person who is qualified and permitted, to conduct flight checks or instruction in an aeroplane and evaluations only in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for a particular type aeroplane, for a particular AOC holder;

     (126)     “Check airman (helicopter)” means a person who is qualified and permitted, to conduct flight checks or instruction in a helicopter and evaluations only in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for a particular type helicopter, for a particular AOC holder;

     (127)     “Check airman (simulator)” means a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks or instruction only in a flight simulator or a flight training device for a particular type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder;

     (128)     “Civil aircraft” means any aircraft other than a public aircraft;

     (129)     “Civil aviation” means the operation of any civil aircraft for the purpose of general aviation operations, aerial work or commercial air transport operations;

     (130)     “Class A airspace”, “Class B airspace”, “Class C airspace”, “Class D airspace” and “Class E airspace” means airspace respectively notified as such, in accordance with the appropriate International Civil Aviation Organization definition;

     (131)     “Clearance limit” means the point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance;

     (132)     “Commercial air transport” means an aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire that is not considered aerial work;

     (133)     “Competency” means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task to the prescribed standard;

     (134)     “Competency element” is an action that constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome;

     (135)     “Competency unit” is a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements;

     (136)     “Complex aeroplane” means any aeroplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; or a turbo-jet powered aircraft; or in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller;

     (137)     “Competent authority” means, in relation to any State, the authority responsible under the law of that State for promoting the safety of civil aviation;

     (138)     “Composite” means structural materials made of substances, including, but not limited to, wood, metal, ceramic, plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may be in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes, of a different material;

     (139)     “Computer system” means any electronic or automated system capable of receiving, storing, and processing external data, and transmitting and presenting such data in a usable form for the accomplishment of a specific function;

     (140)     “Configuration” (as applied to the aeroplane) means a particular combination of the positions of the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing gear, etc., that affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane;

     (141)     “Configuration deviation list (CDL)” is a list established by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design which identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction;

     (142)     “Congested area” as it relates to a city, town or settlement, is any area which is substantially used for residential, commercial or recreational purposes;

     (143)     “Congested hostile environment” means a hostile environment within a congested area;

     (144)     “Consignment” means one or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from one shipper at one time and at one address, receipted for in one lot and moving to one consignee at one destination address;

     (145)     “Contactable” (for the purpose of Flight Duty Times) means a short period of time during the day, other than a day-off, during which a crewmember is required to be contactable for the purpose of giving notification of a duty period which will commence not less than 10 hours ahead. The contactable period shall not cover more than 2.5 hours;

     (146)     “Contracting State” means any State, including Saint Lucia, which is party to the Chicago Convention;

     (147)     “Control area” means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth;

     (148)     “Control zone” means a controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit;

     (149)     “Controlled aerodrome” means an aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic;

     (150)     “Controlled airspace” means an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification;

     (151)     “Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC)” is a means of communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications;

     (152)     “Contracting States” means all States that are signatories to the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention);

     (153)     “Controlled flight” means a flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance;

     (154)     “Control System” means a system by which the flight path, attitude, or propulsive force of an aircraft is changed, including the flight, engine and propeller controls, the related system controls and the associated operating mechanisms;

     (155)     “Conversion” is the action taken by Saint Lucia in issuing its own licence on the basis of a licence issued by another Contracting State for use on aircraft registered in Saint Lucia;

     (156)     “Core curriculum” means a set of courses approved by the Authority, for use by an ATO and its satellite ATOs. The core curriculum consists of training that is required for licensing or aircraft ratings. It does not include training for tasks and circumstances unique to a particular user;

     (157)     “Course” means a program of instruction to obtain an airman licence, rating, qualification, authorization, or currency;

     (158)     “Courseware” means instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including lesson plans, flight event descriptions, computer software programs, audio-visual programs, workbooks, and handouts;

     (159)     “Co-pilot” means a licenced pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction;

          Note.—Co-pilot as here defined, is synonymous with the term “second-in-command” or “SIC”;

     (160)     “Credit” means recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications;

     (161)     “Crew Member” means a member of the flight crew or a Cabin Crew member or any person required to perform duties on an aircraft in flight;

     (162)     “Crew Resource Management” means a program designed to improve the safety of flight operations by optimising the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination;

     (163)     “Cross country” means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures;

     (164)     “Cross-country time” means that time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft which includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the cross-country time requirements for a private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating), commercial pilot licence, or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome which must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure.;

     (165)     “Cruise climb” means an aircraft cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aircraft mass decreases'

     (166)     “Cruise relief pilot” means a flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight, to allow the pilot in- command or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest;

     (167)     “Cruising level” means a level maintained during a significant portion of a flight;

     (168)     “Critical engine” means the engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft;

     (169)     “Critical phases of flight” means those portions of operations of an aircraft which involve taxiing, takeoff, landing and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight;

     (170)     “Current flight plan” means the flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances;

     (171)     “Danger area” is an airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of the aircraft may exist at specified times;

     (172)     “Dangerous goods” means articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions;

     (173)     “Dangerous goods accident” means an occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage;

     (174)     “Dangerous goods incident” means an occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident, associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants is deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident;

     (175)     “Dangerous goods transport document” means a document specified by the ICAO Technical Instructions for the Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air. It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains information about those dangerous goods. The document bears a signed declaration indicating that the dangerous goods are fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified, packed, marked, labelled and in a proper condition for transport.

Note.—See definition below for Technical Instructions;

     (176)     “Data link communications” means a form of communication intended for the exchange of messages via a data link;

     (177)     “Days Off” means periods available for leisure and relaxation free from all duties. A single day off will include two local nights. Consecutive days off shall include a further local night for each additional consecutive day off. A rest period may be included as part of a day off;

     (178)     “Deadhead Transportation” means time spent in transportation on aircraft to or from a crew member's home station;

     (179)     “Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH)” means a specified altitude or height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

     Note 1.—Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level and decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation;

     Note 2.—The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In Category III operations with a decision height the required visual reference is that specified for the particular procedure and operation;

Note 3.—For convenience where both expressions are used they may be written in the form “decision altitude/height” and abbreviated “DA/H”

     (180)     “Defined point after take-off (DPATO)” means the point, within the take-off and initial climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required;

     Note.—Defined points apply to helicopters operating in performance Class 2 only)

     (181)     “Defined point before landing (DPBL)” means the point, within the approach and landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required;

     Note.—Defined points apply to helicopters operating in performance Class 2 only;

     (182)     “Design landing mass” means the maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for structural design purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land;

     (183)     “Design take-off mass” means the maximum mass at which the aircraft, for structural design purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run;

     (184)     “Design taxiing mass” means the maximum mass of the aircraft at which structural provision is made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the start of take-off;

     (185)     “Directly in Charge” as it relates to an Approved Maintenance Organisation in Part 6 - means an appropriately licenced person having the responsibility for the work of an approved maintenance organisation that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness. A person directly in charge does not need to physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for consultation on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority;

     (186)     “Dispatch Crew” means a fully qualified and current flight crew/Cabin Crew authorised to carry out pre-flight duties as defined by the AOC holder;

     (187)     “Document” means a civil aviation document referred to in, or issued or validated under these Regulations or the Regulations of any other State and includes, a licence, rating, authorization, permit and certificate and a copy of the document;

     (188)     “Dry lease” means the lease of an aircraft without the crew;

     (189)     “Dual instruction time” means flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft;

     (190)     “Duplicate Inspection” means an inspection first made and certified by one qualified person and subsequently made and certified by a second qualified person; (Described in IS: 5.6.1.5);

     (191)     “Duty” means any continuous period during which a crewmember is required to carry out any task associated with the business of the operator;

     (192)     “Duty period” as it relates to an air operator, means a period which starts when flight or cabin crew personnel are required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when that person is free from all duties;

     (193)     “Duty time” means the total time from the moment a person identified in these Regulations begins, immediately after a rest period, any work on behalf of the certificate holder until that person is free from all restraint associated with that work;

     (194)     “ECCAA” means the Eastern Caribbean Civil Aviation Authority whose headquarters is in Antigua & Barbuda;

     (195)     “Economic poison” means any substance or mixture of substances intended for —

     •     Preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects, rodents, nematodes, fungi, weeds, and other forms of plant or animal life or viruses, except viruses on or in living human beings or other animals, which the Saint Lucia may declare to be a pest, and

     •     Use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant;

     (196)     “Effective length of the runway” means the distance for landing of an aircraft from the point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centreline of the runway to the far end;

     (197)     “Elevated heliport” means a heliport located on a raised structure on land;

     (198)     “Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)” means a generic term describing equipment which broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may be automatically activated by impact or be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the following —

     •     Automatic fixed ELT, means an automatically activated ELT which is permanently attached to an aircraft;

     •     Automatic portable ELT, means an automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft;

     •     Automatically deployable ELT, means an ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and in some cases, also be hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided;

     •     Survival ELT, means an ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors;

     •     ELT battery useful life, means the length of time after its date of manufacture or recharge that the battery or battery pack may be stored under normal environmental conditions without losing its ability to allow the ELT to meet the applicable performance standards;

     •     ELT battery expiration date, means the date of battery manufacture or recharge plus one half of its useful life;

     (199)     “Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning (EGPWS)” means a forward looking warning system that uses the terrain data base for terrain avoidance;

     (200)     “En-route phase” means that part of the flight from the end of the take-off and initial climb phase to the commencement of the approach and landing phase.

Note.—Where adequate obstacle clearance cannot be guaranteed visually, flights must be planned to ensure that obstacles can be cleared by an appropriate margin. In the event of failure of the critical power-unit, operators may need to adopt alternative procedures;

     (201)     “Error” As it relates to the flight crew, means an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations;

     (202)     “Error management” means the process of detecting and responding to errors with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft state;

     (203)     “Estimated off-block time” means the estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure;

     (204)     “Estimated time of arrival” For IFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that approach procedure will be commenced, or if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome.

Note.—The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend on the approach clearance

     (205)     “Evaluator” means a person employed by a certified Aviation Training Organisation who performs tests for licensing, added ratings, authorizations, and proficiency checks that are authorised by the certificate holder's training specification, and who is authorised by the Authority to administer such checks and tests;

     (206)     “Examiner” means any person authorised by the Authority to conduct a pilot proficiency test, a practical test for a licence or rating, or a knowledge test under these Regulations.

     (207)     “Exception” as it relates to dangerous goods in Part 9 – is a provision in ICAO Annex 18 which excludes a specific item of dangerous goods from the requirements normally applicable to that item;

     (208)     “Expected approach time” means the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing;

     (209)     “Extended overwater operation (Part 7)” as it relates to single-engine land planes, means an operation over water at a distance of more than 185 km (100 nm) from land suitable for making an emergency landing. In the case of multi-engine land planes, more than 370 km (200 nm) from land suitable for making an emergency landing, with the capability of continuing flight with one engine inoperative;

     (210)     “Extended overwater operation (Part 8)” as it relates to aircraft other than helicopters, means an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport structure;

     (211)     “Facility” as used in Part 6, Approved Maintenance Organisations - means a physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, which provides the means for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of any article;

     (212)     “Factor of safety” means a design factor used to provide for the possibility of loads greater than those assumed, and for uncertainties in design and fabrication;

     (213)     “Fatal injury” as it relates to an aircraft accident, is any injury which results in death within 30 days of the accident;

     (214)     “Filed flight plan” means the flight plan as fled with an air traffic service unit by the pilot or a designated representative, without any subsequent changes;

     (215)     “Final approach and take-off area (FATO)” means a defined area over which the final phase of the approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is completed and from which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by helicopters operating in performance Class 1, the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available;

     (216)     “Fireproof material” means a material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose;

     (217)     “Flight(s)” means the period from takeoff to landing;

     (218)     “Flight crew” means those members of the crew of an aircraft who act as pilot or flight engineer;

     (219)     “Flight crewmember” means a licenced crewmember charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight time;

     (220)     “Flight data analysis” is a process of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the safety of flight operations;

     (221)     “Flight duty period” means the total time from the moment a flight crew member commences duty, immediately subsequent to a rest period and prior to making a flight or a series of flights, to the moment the flight crew member is relieved of all duties having completed such flight or series of flights;

     (222)     “Flight information centre” means a unit established to provide flight information service and alerting service;

     (223)     “Flight information region” means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided;

     (224)     “Flight information service” means a service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;

     (225)     “Flight level” means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1,013.2 hectopascals (hPa), and is separated from other surfaces by specific pressure intervals;

     (226)     “Flight manual” means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft;

     (227)     “Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher” means a person designated by the operator to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations, suitably qualified in accordance with Annex 1, who supports, briefs or assists the pilot-in-command in the safe conduct of the flight;

     (228)     “Flight plan” means —

     (1)     specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft;

     (2)     full information on all items comprised in the flight plan description, covering the whole route of a flight; or

     (3)     limited information required when the purpose is to obtain a clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled aerodrome;

     (229)     “Flight Recorder” means any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of complementing accident/incident investigation.

Note.—This could include the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) or Flight Data Recorder (FDR).

     (230)     “Flight safety documents system” means a set of interrelated documentation established by the operator, compiling and organizing information necessary for flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a minimum, the operations manual and the operator's maintenance control manual;

     (231)     “Flight simulation training device” means any one of the following three types of apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground —

A flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of flight crew members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically simulated;

A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class;

A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions;

     (232)     “Flight status” means an indication of whether a given aircraft requires special handling by air traffic services units or not;

     (233)     “Flight time” means the period of time that the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after it is parked, with engine(s) shut down if applicable.;

Note.—Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term “block-to-block” time or “chock-to-chock” time in general usage, which is measured from the time an aircraft moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point.

     (234)     “Flight time – aeroplane” means the total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.;

     (235)     “Flight time – helicopter” means the total time from the moment a helicopter's rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;

     (236)     “Flight time – glider” means the total time occupied in flight, whether being towed or not, from the moment the glider first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight;

     (237)     “Flight training” means training, other than ground training, received from an authorised instructor in flight in an aircraft;

     (238)     “Flight training device” means a device that —

     (i)     is a full size replica of the instruments, equipment, panels, and controls of an aircraft, or set of aircraft, open or in an enclosed cockpit, including the hardware and software for the systems installed, that is necessary to simulate the aircraft in ground and flight operations;

     (ii)     need not have a force (motion) cueing or visual system; and

     (iii)     has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Authority;

Note.—A set of aircraft are those that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelops, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems.

     (239)     “Flight Training Equipment” means flight simulators, flight training devices, and aircraft;

     (240)     “Flight visibility” the visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight;

     (241)     “Flying Duty Period (FDP)” means any time during which a person operates an aircraft as a member of its crew. It starts when the crewmember is required to report for a flight and finishes at on-chocks or engine off at the end of the final sector;

     (242)     “Foreign air operator” means any operator, not being a Saint Lucia air operator, which undertakes, whether directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in commercial air transport operations within the borders or airspace of Saint Lucia, whether on a scheduled or charter basis;

     (243)     “Foreign Authority” means the civil aviation authority that issues and oversees the Air Operator Certificate of a foreign air operator;

     (244)     “Freight container” means any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo;

     (245)     “Freight container” in the case of radioactive material transport means an article of transport equipment designed to facilitate the transport of packaged goods, by one or more modes of transport without intermediate reloading. It must be of a permanent enclosed character, rigid and strong enough for repeated use, and must be fitted with devices facilitating its handling, particularly in transfer between aircraft and from one mode of transport to another;

     (246)     “General aviation operation” means an aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport operation or an aerial work operation;

     (247)     “Glider” means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, which remain, fixed under given conditions of flight;

     (248)     “Ground handling” means services necessary for an aircraft's arrival at, and departure from, an airport, other than air traffic services;

     (249)     “Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)” is a warning system that uses radar altimeters to alert the pilots of hazardous flight conditions relating to the aircraft's proximity to the ground;

     (250)     “Ground visibility” means the visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer;

     (251)     “Gyroplane”, means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes;

     (252)     “Handling agent” means an agency which performs on behalf of the operator some or all of the latter's functions including receiving, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo;

     (253)     “Heading” means the direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid);

     (254)     “Heavier-than-air aircraft” means any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces;

     (255)     “Height” means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered a point, measured from a specified datum;

     (256)     “Helicopter” means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axis;

     (257)     “Helicopter Class 1” means a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs;

     (258)     “Helicopter Class 2” means a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required;

     (259)     “Helicopter Class 3” means a helicopter with performance such that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed;

     (260)     “Helideck” means a heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure;

     (261)     “Heliport” means an aerodrome or a defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of helicopters.

     Note 1.—Throughout this Part, when the term “heliport” is used, it is intended that the term also applies to aerodromes primarily meant for the use of aeroplanes;

     Note 2.—Helicopters may be operated to and from areas other than heliports;

     (262)     “Heliport operating minima” means the limits of usability of a heliport for —

     (a)     take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions;

     (b)     landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the category of the operation;

     (c)     landing in approach and landing operations with vertical guidance, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H); and

     (d)     landing in non-precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions;

     (263)     “High-performance aeroplane” means an aeroplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower;

     (264)     “High Speed Aural Warning” means a speed warning that is required for turbine-engined airplanes and airplanes with a VMO/MMO greater than 0.80 VDF/MDF or VD/MD;

     (265)     “Holdover time” means the estimated time de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its effectiveness;

     (266)     “Hostile environment” means an environment in which —

     (a)     a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface and surrounding environment are inadequate; or

     (b)     the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; or

     (c)     search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or

     (d)     there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground;

     (267)     “Housing” as it relates to Approved Maintenance Organisations – means buildings, hangers, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment and materials of a maintenance organisation that —

     •     Provide working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications for which the maintenance organisation is approved and rated; and

     •     Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies thereof during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly, and testing; and

     •     Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts, and supplies.

     (268)     “Human Factors principles” means principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification, training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration to human performance;

     (269)     “Human performance” means human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations;

     (270)     “ICAO” is an abbreviation for the International Civil Aviation Organisation;

     (271)     “IFR” is an abbreviation for instrument flight rules;

     (272)     “IFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules;

     (273)     “Implementing Standards (IS)” the Implementing Standards provide detailed requirements that support the intent of a regulation presented in a Part and, by reference, have the force and effect of the governing Regulations;

     (274)     “Incident” means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations;

     (275)     “Includes” is a rule of construction that means “includes but is not limited to”;

     (276)     “Incompatible” as it relates to dangerous goods, are goods which if mixed, would be liable to cause a dangerous evolution of heat or gas or produce a corrosive substance;

     (277)     “Inspection” means the examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish conformity with a standard approved by the Authority;

     (278)     “Instrument approach procedure” means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply;

     (279)     “Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)” means meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions;

     (280)     “Instrument flight time” means time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points;

     (281)     “Instrument ground time” means time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flight in a flight simulation training device approved by the Authority;

     (282)     “Instrument time” means time in which cockpit instruments are used as the sole means for navigation and control, which may be instrument flight time or instrument ground time;

     (283)     “Instrument training” means training which is received from an authorised instructor under actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions;

     (284)     “Integrated survival suit” means a survival suit which meets the combined requirements of the survival suit and life jacket;

     (285)     “Interchange agreement” means a leasing agreement which permits an air carrier to dry lease and take or relinquish operational control of an aircraft at an airport;

     (286)     “International commercial air transport” means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property for remuneration or hire or the carriage of mail between any two or more countries;

     (287)     “International operating agency” means an agency of the kind contemplated in Article 77 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation;

     (288)     “Investigation” as relates to an aircraft accident or incident, means a process conducted for the purpose of accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes and, when appropriate, the making of safety recommendations;

     (289)     “Investigator-in-charge” as relates to an aircraft accident or incident, means a person charged, on the basis of his or her qualifications, with the responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of an investigation;

     (290)     “Journey log” means a form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the registration of the aircraft, the name of each crew member and their duty assignments, the type of flight, the date, place and time of arrival and departure;

     (291)     “Knowledge test” means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer;

     (292)     “Land” when used as a verb in relation to an aircraft, includes alighting on water;

     (293)     “Landing area” means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of an aircraft;

     (294)     “Landing decision point (LDP)” means the point used in determining landing performance from which, a power-unit failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated;

Note.—LDP applies only to helicopters operating in performance Class 1;

     (295)     “Landing surface” means that part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular direction;

     (296)     “Large aeroplane” means an aeroplane having a maximum certified take-off mass of 5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.), or more;

     (297)     “Late Finish/Early Start” means any duty that is carried out within any part of the period 01:00 to 06:59 hours local time, to which a crewmember is acclimatised;

     (298)     “Level” means a generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning variously, height, altitude or flight level;

     (299)     “Level 1 Aviation Training Organisation (ATO)” means a flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using aircraft;

     (300)     “Level 2 Aviation Training Organisation (ATO)” means a flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using simulation media which are qualified and approved by the Authority;

     (301)     “Licence” includes any certificate of competency or certificate of validity issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the licence by the law of the State in which the licence is granted;

     (302)     “Life-limited part” means any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type design, the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, or the maintenance manual;

     (303)     “Lighter-than-air aircraft” means any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air;

     (304)     “Limit loads” means the maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions;

     (305)     “Line maintenance” means any unscheduled maintenance resulting from unforeseen events, or scheduled checks that contain servicing or inspections that do not require specialised training, equipment or facilities;

     (306)     “Line operating flight time” means the flight time recorded by the PIC or Co-Pilot while in commercial air transport service for an AOC holder;

     (307)     “Line Operational Simulation” means simulation conducted using operational-oriented flight scenarios that accurately replicate interaction among flightcrew members and between flightcrew members and dispatch facilities, other crewmembers, air traffic control, and ground operations;

     (308)     “Line Operational Flight Training (LOFT)” means training in a simulator with a complete crew using representative flight segments which contain normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures that may be expected in line operations;

     (309)     “Load factor” means the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or ground reactions;

     (310)     “Local Night” means a period of 8 hours falling between 21:00 and 07:00 hours local time;

     (311)     “Logbook” in the case of an aircraft logbook, engine logbook or variable pitch propeller logbook, or personal flying logbook, includes a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the Minister in the particular case;

     (312)     “Long Range Overwater Flights” means routes on which an aeroplane may be over water and at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 740 km (400 NM), whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency landing;

     (313)     “Low Altitude Wind Shear Warning and Guidance System” means a system that will issue a warning of low altitude wind shear and in some cases provide the pilot with guidance information of the escape manoeuvre;

     (314)     “Mach Number Indicator” is an indicator that shows airspeed as a function of the Mach number;

     (315)     “Maintenance” means the performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, including any one or combination of overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and the embodiment of a modification or repair;

     (316)     “Maintenance Control Manual” is a document that describes the operator's procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is performed on the operator's aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner;

     (317)     “Maintenance Procedures Manual” is a document endorsed by the head of the maintenance organization which details the maintenance organisation's structure and management responsibilities, scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance procedures and quality assurance or inspection systems;

     (318)     “Maintenance programme” is a document which describes the specific scheduled maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a reliability programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies;

     (319)     “Maintenance release” is a certification by an appropriately certified person confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, in accordance with the approved data and the approved procedures manual or under an approved equivalent system;

     (320)     “Major alteration” means an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications – (1) that might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant, operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that cannot be done by elementary operations;

     (321)     “Major modification” has the meaning described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(3);

     (322)     “Major repair” has the meaning described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(4);

     (323)     “Manoeuvring area” means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons;

     (324)     “Master minimum equipment list (MMEL)” means a list established —

     (i)     for a particular aircraft type by the manufacturer with the approval of the State of Manufacture containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight and may be associated with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures; and

     (ii)     to provide the basis for development, review and approval by the Authority of an individual operator's MEL;

     (325)     “Maximum mass” means maximum certificated take-off mass;

     (326)     “Maximum total weight authorized” in relation to an aircraft means the maximum total weight of the aircraft and its contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favorable circumstances, in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft;

     (327)     “May” is a rule of construction that indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described in a regulation;

     (328)     “Measurement Device” means a calibrated calibrator, standard, equipment and test equipment that is intended to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other measurement devices. It is not to be used to test, measure, or calibrate an aeronautical product;

     (329)     “Meteorological information” means a meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions;

     (330)     “Military aircraft” means a naval, military or air force aircraft of any State and any aircraft in respect of which there is in force a certificate issued by the Minister that the aircraft is to be treated, for the purposes of these Regulations, as a military aircraft;

     (331)     “Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH)” means a specified altitude or height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference;

     Note 1.—Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is referenced to mean sea level and minimum descent height (MDH) is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. A minimum descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.

Note 2.—The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environment.

Note 3.—For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form “minimum descent altitude/height” and abbreviated “MDA/H”

     (332)     “Minimum equipment list (MEL)” is a list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type;

     (333)     “Minister” means the Minister responsible for civil aviation;

     (334)     “Modification” means the alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an approved standard;

     (335)     “Movement area” is that part of an aerodrome to be used for takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s);

     (336)     “Navigable airspace” means the airspace above the minimum altitudes of flight prescribed in these Regulations (Part 8) and includes airspace needed to ensure safety in the takeoff and landing of aircraft;

     (337)     “Navigation of aircraft” means a function which includes the piloting of aircraft;

     (338)     “Night” means the hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise. Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon;

     (339)     “Non-congested hostile environment” means a hostile environment outside a congested area;

     (340)     “Non-hostile environment” means an environment in which —

     (a)     a safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface and surrounding environment are adequate;

     (b)     the helicopter occupants can be adequately protected from the elements;

     (c)     search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with anticipated exposure; and

     (d)     the assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the ground is acceptable.

Note.—Those parts of a congested area satisfying the above requirements are considered non-hostile

     (341)     “Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH)” means the lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

Note 1.—Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-precision approaches to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An obstacle clearance height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.

Note.—For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form “obstacle clearance altitude/height” and abbreviated “OCA/H”.

     (342)     “Obstruction clearance plane” means a plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the centreline of the specified area coincides with the centreline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centreline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1,500 feet from the beginning point. Thereafter, the centreline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 4,000 foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 ft on each side of the centreline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to 500 ft on each side of the centreline at a point 1,500 ft from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it extends laterally 5 feet on each side of the centreline;

     (343)     “Offshore operations” means operations which routinely have a substantial proportion of the flight conducted over sea areas to or from offshore locations. Such operations include, but are not limited to, support of offshore oil, gas and mineral exploitation and sea-pilot transfer;

     (344)     “Operation” an activity or group of activities which are subject to the same or similar hazards and which require a set of equipment to be specified, or the achievement and maintenance of a set of pilot competencies, to eliminate or mitigate the risk of such hazards;

Note.—Such activities could include, but would not be limited to, offshore operations, heli-hoist operations or emergency medical service.

     (345)     “Operating position” means an air traffic control function performed within or directly associated with a control facility;

     (346)     “Operational control” means the exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of the flight;

     (347)     “Operational flight plan” means the operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned;

     (348)     “Operations manual” means a manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties;

     (349)     “Operations specifications” are part of an operator's certificate (air operator certificate, approved training organization certificate, approved maintenance organization certificate, etc.) that is used to administer safety standards and define the provisions and limitations within which the operator may conduct business operations. Operations specifications are issued by the Authority and considered a legal, contractual agreement between the Authority and the operator;

     (350)     “Operator” means a person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft operation;

     (351)     “Overhaul” means the restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, including disassembly, cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as necessary, and reassembly; and tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorization (PMA) or Technical Standard Order (TSO);

     (352)     “Overpack” means an enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage;

     (353)     “Package” means the complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packaging and its contents prepared for transport;

     (354)     “Packaging” means receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the packing requirements;

     (355)     “Parascending parachute” means a parachute which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;

     (356)     “Passenger” means a person other than a member of the crew;

     (357)     “Passenger aircraft” means an aircraft that carries any person other than a crew member, an operator's employee in an official capacity, an authorized representative of an appropriate national authority or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo;

     (358)     “Passenger exit seats” means those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat having “direct access” means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction;

     (359)     “Person” includes a body corporate or an unincorporated body;

     (360)     “Performance criteria” means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of performance has been achieved;

     (361)     “Pilot in command” means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time;

     (362)     “Pilot time” means that time a person —

     (i)     serves as a required pilot;

     (ii)     receives training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight training device; or

     (iii)     gives training as an authorised instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight-training device;

     (363)     “Powered-lift” means a heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight;

     (364)     “Powerplant” means an engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It includes turbo superchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its functioning, but does not include propellers;

     (365)     “Power-unit” means a system of one or more engines and ancillary parts which are together necessary to provide thrust, independently of the continued operation of any other power unit(s), but not including short period thrust producing devices;

     (366)     “Practical test” means a competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, in an approved flight simulator, or in an approved flight training device, or in a combination of these;

     (367)     “Pre-flight inspection” means the inspection carried out before flight to insure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight;

     (368)     “Preliminary report” is the communication used for the prompt dissemination of data obtained during the early stages of the investigation;

     (369)     “Prescribed” means a rule of construction that means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology which imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “shall,” or a discretionary requirement if the written policy or methodology states “may;”

     (370)     “Pressure-altitude” is an atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere;

     (371)     “Pressurised aircraft” means for airman-licensing purposes, an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL and which is provided with means of maintaining in any compartment a pressure greater than that of the surrounding atmosphere;

     (372)     “Preventative maintenance” has the meaning described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(5);

     (373)     “Primary Standard” means a standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to calibrate secondary standards;

     (374)     “Problematic use of substances” means the use of one or more psychoactive substances by aviation personnel in a way that —

     •     Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of others; or

     •     Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder;

     (375)     “Prohibited area” as it relates to flight, is an airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited;

     (376)     “Proper shipping name” means the name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging;

     (377)     “Propeller” means a device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a powerplant driven shaft and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating airfoils of powerplants;

     (378)     “Psychoactive substances” means alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded;

     (379)     “Psychosis” means a mental disorder in which the individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or the individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition;

     (380)     “Public aircraft” means an aircraft used exclusively in the service of any government or of any political jurisdiction thereof, including the Government of Saint Lucia, but not including any government owned aircraft engaged in operations which meet the definition of commercial air transport operations;

     (381)     “Quality assurance” quality assurance, as distinguished from quality control, involves activities in the business, systems, and technical audit areas. A set of predetermined, systematic actions which are required to provide adequate confidence that a product or service satisfies quality requirements;

     (382)     “Quality control” means the regulatory inspection process through which actual performance is compared with standards, such as the maintenance of standards of manufactured aeronautical products, and any difference is acted on;

     (383)     “Quality system” means documented organisational procedures and policies; internal audit of those policies procedures; management review and recommendation for quality improvements;

     (384)     “Radiotelephony” is a form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of information in the form of speech;

     (385)     “Rated air traffic controller” means an air traffic controller holding a licence and valid ratings appropriate to the privileges to be exercised;

     (386)     “Rating” means an authorization entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence or certificate;

     (387)     “Rebuild” means the restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product by using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits. This work will be performed by only the manufacturer or an organisation approved by the manufacturer, and authorised by the State of Registry;

     (388)     “Record” means anything in which information of any description is recorded;

     (389)     “Reference Standard” means a standard that is used to maintain working standards;

     (390)     “Rendering (a Certificate of Airworthiness) valid” means the action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to issuing its own Certificate of Airworthiness, in accepting a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own Certificate of Airworthiness;

     (391)     “Repair” means —

     •     The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition as defined by the appropriate airworthiness requirements;

     •     The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to ensure that the aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements used for the issuance of the type certificate for the respective aircraft type, after it has been damaged or subjected to wear;

     (392)     “Repetitive flight plan (RPL)” means a flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive use by ATC units;

     (393)     “Replacement” in relation to any part of an aircraft or its equipment includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but does not include the removal and replacement of a part which is designed to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired, removed or replaced or cargo to be loaded;

     (394)     “Reporting point” means a specified geographical location in relation to which the position of the aircraft can be reported.

     (395)     “Reporting Time” means the time at which a crew member is required by the AOC holder to report for any duty;

     (396)     “Required communication performance (RCP)” is a statement of the performance requirements for operational communication in support of specific ATM functions;

     (397)     “Required communication performance type (RCP type)” is a label (e.g. RCP 240) that represents the values assigned to RCP parameters for communication transaction time, continuity, availability and integrity;

     (398)     “Required navigation performance (RNP)” is a statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace;

Note.—Navigation performance and requirements are defined for a particular RNP type or application.

     (399)     “Rest period” means a period free of all restraint, duty or responsibility for persons indentified in these Regulations conducting commercial air transport operations or work under a certificate or approval from the Authority;

     (400)     “Restricted area” as it relates to airspace, is an airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions;

     (401)     “RNP type” means a containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position within which flights would be for at least 95% of the total flying time. Example – RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of plus or minus 7.4 km (4 NM) on a 95% containment basis;

     (402)     “Rotorcraft” means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors;

     (403)     “Rotorcraft flight manual” is a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the rotorcraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of the rotorcraft;

     (404)     “Rotorcraft load combinations” means configurations for external loads carried by rotorcraft —

     (i)     Class A – external load fixed to the rotorcraft, which cannot be jettisoned, does not extend below the landing gear and is used to transport cargo;

     (ii)     Class B – external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during rotorcraft operations;

     (iii)     Class C – external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water during rotorcraft operation;

     (iv)     Class D – external load suspended from the rotorcraft for the carriage of persons;

     (405)     “Rostered/Planned Duty” means a duty period, or series of duty periods, with stipulated start and finish times, notified to crews in advance;

     (406)     “Rostering Period” means a number of consecutive weeks (2 to 6 weeks normally 4 weeks);

     (407)     “Runway” is a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and takeoff of aircraft;

     (408)     “Runway-holding position” means a designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower;

     (409)     “Runway visual range (RVR)” means the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line;

     (410)     “Safe forced landing” means unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface;

     (411)     “Safety management system” means a systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities, policies and procedures;

     (412)     “Safety programme” means an integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving safety;

     (413)     “Safety recommendation” as it relates to accident investigation is a proposal of the accident investigation authority of the State conducting the investigation, based on information derived from the investigation made with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents;

     (414)     “Safety-sensitive personnel” means persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform their duties and functions improperly including, but not limited to, crew members, aircraft maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers;

     (415)     “Satellite” means an ATO at a location other than primary location of the ATO;

     (416)     “Scheduled Duty” means the allocation of a specific flight or flights or other duties to a crew member within the pre-notified rostered series of duty periods;

     (417)     “Secondary Standards” means a standard maintained by comparison with a primary standard;

     (418)     “Sector” means the time between the aircraft first moves under its own power, takes off, lands and comes to rest on the designated parking position;

     (419)     “Serious incident” means an incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred;

     (420)     “Serious injury” means an injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which —

     (i)     requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received;

     (ii)     results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); or

     (iii)     involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage; or

     (iv)     involves injury to any internal organ; or

     (v)     involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface; or

     (vi)     involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation;

     (421)     “Shall” indicates a mandatory requirement;

     (422)     “Signal area” means an area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals;

     (423)     “Signature” is an individual's unique identification used as a means of authenticating a record entry or record. A signature may be hand-written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority;

     (424)     “Skill test” means a competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted with actual demonstrations and by having the applicant respond to questions;

     (425)     “Small aeroplane” means an aeroplane having a maximum certified take-off mass of less than 5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.);

     (426)     “Solo flight” means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or that flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember;

     (427)     “Spare parts” means any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft (other than aircraft engines and propellers), of aircraft engines (other than propellers), of propellers, and of appliances, maintained for installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, but which at the time are not installed therein or attached thereto;

     (428)     “Special VFR flight” means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC;

     (429)     “Specialised maintenance” means any maintenance not normally performed by an AMO (e.g., tire retreating, plating, etc.);

     (430)     “Speciality curriculum” means a set of courses that is designed to satisfy a requirement of the Civil Aviation Regulations and that is approved by the Authority for use by a particular Level 2 ATO or satellite Level 2 ATO. The speciality curriculum includes training requirements unique to one or more Level 2 ATO clients;

     (431)     “Specific operating provisions” (Maintenance) means the Specific Operating Provisions which describe the ratings (Class or Limited) in detail and which will contain or reference material and process specifications used in performing repair work, along with any limitations applied to the maintenance organisation. The accountable manager and the Authority sign this document;

     (432)     “Split Duty” means a Flying Duty Period that consists of 2 or more sectors, separated by less than a minimum rest period;

     (433)     “Standard” means an object, artifact, tool, test equipment, system, or experiment that stores, embodies, or otherwise provides a physical quantity, which serves as the basis for measurement of the quantity. It also includes a document describing the operations and process that must be performed in order for a particular end to be achieved;

     (434)     “Standard atmosphere” means an atmospheric unit of reference defined as follows —

     (a)     the air is a perfect dry gas;

     (b)     the physical constants are —

     –     Sea level mean molar mass:

M0 = 28.964420 x 10-3 kg mol-1

Sea level atmospheric pressure:

P0 = 1013.250 hPa

Sea level temperature:

t0 = 15°C

T0 = 288.15 K

Sea level atmospheric density:

p0 = 1.2250 kg m^-3

Temperature of the ice point:

Ti = 273.15 K

Universal gas constant:

R* = 8.31432 JK-1mol-1

     (c)     the temperature gradients are —

Geopotential altitude (km)/Temperature gradient

     (435)     “Standby Duty” means a period during which the company places restraints on a crewmember who would otherwise be off duty;

     (436)     “State of Design” means the Contracting State which approved the original type certificate and any subsequent supplemental type certificates for an aircraft, or which approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance;

     (437)     “State of Manufacture” means the Contracting State, under whose authority an aircraft was assembled, approved for compliance with the type certificate and all extant supplemental type certificates, test flown and approved for operation. The state of manufacture may or may not also be the state of design;

     (438)     “State of Occurrence” means the State in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs;

     (439)     “State of Origin” as it relates to dangerous goods, the State in which dangerous goods were first loaded on an aircraft;

     (440)     “State of Registry” means the Contracting State on whose registry an aircraft is entered;

     (441)     “Substance” means alcohol, sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics, hallucinogens, opioids, cannabis, inhalants, central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics, phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines, and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals;

     (442)     “Substance abuse” means —

     (i)     the use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;

     (ii)     a verified positive drug test result acquired under an anti-drug program or internal program of the Saint Lucia government; or

     (iii)     misuse of a substance that the Authority, based on case history and qualified medical judgement relating to the substance involved, finds makes the applicant unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or may reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the applicant unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges;

     (443)     “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by increased tolerance; manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; impaired control of use; or continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning;

     (444)     “Substantial damage” means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent failings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered “substantial damage” for the purpose of this Part;

     (445)     “Suitable Accommodation” means a well-furnished bedroom, which is subject to minimum noise, is well ventilated and has the facility to control the level of light and temperature;

     (446)     “Synthetic flight trainer” see Flight simulation training device;

     (447)     “Take-off and initial climb phase” means that part of the flight from the start of take-off to 300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to the end of the climb in the other cases;

     (448)     “Takeoff decision point” means the point used in determining takeoff performance of a Class 1 helicopter from which, should an engine failure occur at this point, either a rejected takeoff may be made or a takeoff safely continued;

     (449)     “Take-off surface” means that part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft taking off in a particular direction;

     (450)     “Target level of safety (TLS)” means a generic term representing the level of risk which is considered acceptable in particular circumstances;

     (451)     “Taxiing” means movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding takeoff and landing;

     (452)     “Taxiway” means a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including —

     •     Aircraft stand taxi lane. A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only;

     •     Apron taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron;

     •     Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times;

     (453)     “Technical instructions” means the latest effective edition of the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (Doc. 9284-AN/905), including the supplement and any addendum, approved and published by decision of the Council of the ICAO. The term “Technical Instructions” is used in this Part;

     (454)     “Technical log” means a document carried on an aircraft for recording defects and malfunctions discovered during operation and for recording details of all maintenance carried out whilst the aircraft is operating between scheduled visits to the base maintenance facility. It also contains operating information relevant to flight safety and maintenance data that the operating crew need to know. A technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft maintenance record section;

     (455)     “Terminal control area” means a control area normally established at the confluence of ATC routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes;

     (456)     “Terrain Awareness Warning System” means a system that provides the flight crew with sufficient information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation and so the flight crew may take effective action to prevent a controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) event;

     (457)     “Threat” as it relates to flight, events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety;

     (458)     “Threat management” means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors;

     (459)     “Tools, Equipment and Test Equipment” means equipment used for the performance of maintenance or calibration on an aircraft or aeronautical product. See also working standard;

     (460)     “Total estimated elapsed time” means for IFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over the destination aerodrome;

     (461)     “Total vertical error (TVE)” means the vertical geometric difference between the actual pressure altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight level);

     (462)     “Track” means the projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid);

     (463)     “Traceability” means a characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree. A traceable calibration is achieved when each Measurement Device and Working Standard, in a hierarchy stretching back to the National Standard, was itself properly calibrated, and the results properly documented. The documentation provides the information needed to show that all calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed;

     (464)     “Traffic avoidance advice” is advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying manoeuvres to assist a pilot to avoid a collision.

     (465)     “Traffic information” means information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision;

     (466)     “Training manual” is a manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course;

     (467)     “Training procedures manual” is a manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by personnel in the execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate;

     (468)     “Training program” means a program that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight training equipment and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective. It may include a core curriculum and a specialty curriculum;

     (469)     “Training time” means the time spent receiving any kind of approved training from an authorised instructor;

     (470)     “Training to proficiency” means the process of the check airman administering each prescribed manoeuvre and procedure to a pilot as necessary until it is performed successfully during the training period;

     (471)     “Training specifications” means a document issued to a certified Aviation Training Organisation by the Authority that prescribes that organisation's training, checking, and testing authorizations and limitations, and specifies training program requirements;

     (472)     “Transition altitude” means the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes;

     (473)     “Transfer Standard” means any standard that is used to compare a measurement process, system, or device at one location or level with another measurement process, system or device at another location or level;

     (474)     “Travelling time” means all time spent by a crewmember transiting between the place of rest and the place of reporting for duty;

     (475)     “Type Certificate” is a document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an aircraft type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State;

     (476)     “Ultimate load” means the limit load multiplied by the appropriate factor of safety;

     (477)     “UN number” means the four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods to identify a substance or a particular group of substances;

     (478)     “Undesired aircraft state” occurs when the flight crew places the aircraft in a situation of unnecessary risk;

     (479)     “Unit load device” means any type of aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo;

     (480)     “Unmanned free balloon” means a non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free flight;

     (481)     “Validation” means the action taken by one State as an alternative to issuing its own licence or certificate, in accepting a licence or certificate issued by another Contracting State as the equivalent of its own licence or certificate for use on aircraft registered in the first State;

     (482)     “Visibility” means visibility for aeronautical purposes is the greater of —

     •     The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognized when observed against a bright background;

     •     The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1,000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background;

     (483)     “Visual meteorological conditions (VMC)” means meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima;

     (484)     “Vital Point” means any point on an aircraft at which single mal-assembly could lead to catastrophe, i.e. result in loss of aircraft or in fatalities;

     (485)     “VFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules;

     (486)     “VTOSS” means the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical power-unit inoperative, the remaining power units operating within approved operating limits.

Note.—The speed referred to above may be measured by instrument indications or achieved by a procedure specified in the flight manual

     (487)     “Week” means a period of 7 consecutive days starting at (..) time Local on a (..) day of the week. (Insert time and day of the week, as required;)

     (488)     “Wet Lease” means the lease of an aircraft with crew and other back-up;

     (489)     “Working Standard” means a calibrated standard that is used in the performance of maintenance or calibrations in any work area for the purpose of forming the basis for product acceptance or for making a finding of airworthiness (approval for return to service) to an aircraft or aeronautical product. A working standard may be maintained by comparison with primary standards, secondary standards, reference standards or transfer standards, as appropriate. A working standard is not to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other working standards or measurement devices.

1.2     GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES

     1.2.1.1  DISPLAY AND INSPECTION OF LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES

     (a)     Pilot licence —

     (1)     To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft registered in Saint Lucia, a person shall have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot licence.

     (2)     To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within Saint Lucia, a person shall be the holder of a valid pilot licence issued by the State of Registry, and have the pilot licence in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

     (b)     Flight instructor rating: A person who holds a flight instructor rating shall have that licence, or any other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that rating.

     (c)     Other airman licence: A person required by any part of these Regulations to have an airman's licence shall have it in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that licence.

     (d)     Medical certificate: A person required by any part of these Regulations to have a current medical certificate shall have it in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that certificate.

     (e)     Pilot School Certificate and Aviation Maintenance Technician School Certificate: The holder of a Pilot School certificate or a provisional Pilot School certificate or Aviation Maintenance Technician School certificate shall display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public and that is not obscured.

     (f)     Training Centre Certificate: The holder of a Training Centre certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office of the training centre.

     (g)     Aircraft Airworthiness Certificate: An owner or operator of an aircraft shall display that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the aircraft flight deck.

     (h)     Approved Maintenance Organisation (AMO) Certificate: The holder of an AMO certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office of the AMO.

     (i)     Inspection of licence: A person who holds an airman or crewmember licence, medical certificate, or authorization required by these Regulations shall present it for inspection on a request from —

     (1)     the Authority; or

     (2)     any national or local law enforcement officer.

     1.2.1.2  CHANGE OF NAME

     (a)     A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may apply to change the name on a licence or certificate.

     (b)     The holder under part (a) shall include with any such request —

     (1)     the current licence or certificate; and

     (2)     a copy of the marriage licence, court order, or other document verifying the name change.

     (c)     The Authority shall return to the airman the documents specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection.

     1.2.1.3  CHANGE OF ADDRESS

A holder of an airman licence or pilot school, training centre, or aviation maintenance school certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the licence or certificate unless he or she has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address, or current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number.

     1.2.1.4   REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED AIRMAN OR MEDICAL CERTIFICATE OR KNOWLEDGE TEST REPORT

     (a)     An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents issued under these Regulations shall request a replacement in writing from the office designated by the Authority —

     (1)     an airman licence;

     (2)     a medical certificate;

     (3)     a knowledge test report.

     (b)     The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter —

     (1)     the name of the airman or applicant;

     (2)     the permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, the person's current residential address;

     (3)     the social security number or equivalent national identification number;

     (4)     the date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and

     (5)     any available information regarding the —

     (ii)     grade, number, and date of issuance of the licence, and the ratings, if applicable;

     (iii)     date of the medical examination, if applicable; and

     (iv)     date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.

     (c)     After receiving a facsimile from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed document was issued, an airman may carry the facsimile in lieu of the lost or destroyed document for up to 60 days pending the airman's receipt of a duplicate document

     1.2.1.5  FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF APPLICATIONS, CERTIFICATES, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, OR RECORDS

     (a)     A person shall not make or cause to be made concerning any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization, an application for or duplicate thereof, issued under these Regulations —

     (1)     any fraudulent or intentionally false statement;

     (2)     any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that these Regulations require, or used to show compliance with any requirement of these Regulations;

     (3)     any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or

     (4)     any alteration.

     (b)     A person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section may have his or her airman licence, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorization revoked or suspended.

     1.2.1.6  SURRENDER, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENCE OR CERTIFICATE

     (a)     A licence or certificate issued under these Regulations shall cease to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

     (b)     Where a certificate or a licence issued under these Regulations has been suspended or revoked, the holder of such a licence or a certificate shall, on a request made by the Authority, return that licence or certificate to the Authority.

     1.2.1.7  REAPPLICATION AFTER REVOCATION

Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence, certificate, rating, or authorization has been revoked shall not apply for any licence, certificate, rating, or authorization for one year after the date of revocation.

     1.2.1.8  REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION

Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence has been suspended shall not apply for any licence, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension.

     1.2.1.9  VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF Licence

     (a)     The holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may voluntarily surrender it for —

     (1)     cancellation;

     (2)     issuance of a lower grade licence; or

     (3)     another licence with specific ratings deleted.

     (b)     An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of licence or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.”

     1.2.1.10  PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY

     (a)     A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these Regulations shall not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person —

     (1)     knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or

     (2)     is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate.

     1.2.1.11  DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING AND REPORTING

     (a)     An employee who performs any function requiring a licence, rating, qualification, or authorization prescribed by these Regulations directly or by contract for a certificate holder under the provisions of these Regulations may —

     (1)     be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization for a period of up to one year after the date of such refusal; and

     (2)     have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these Regulations suspended or revoked.

     (b)     A person subject to these Regulations who is convicted for the violation of any local or national statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances, shall —

     (1)     be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these Regulations for a period of up to one year after the date of final conviction; or

     (2)     have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these Regulations suspended or revoked.

     (c)     A person subject to these Regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer, or refuses to furnish or to authorise the release of the test results requested by the Authority shall —

     (1)     be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these Regulations for a period of up to one year after the date of that refusal; or

     (2)     have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these Regulations suspended or revoked.

1.3     EXEMPTIONS AND EQUIVALENT SAFETY CASE

     1.3.1.1  EXEMPTIONS AND EQUIVALENT SAFETY CASE

A person shall not introduce procedures contrary to those prescribed in these Regulations unless needed and an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the Authority.

1.4     SAFETY MANAGEMENT

     (a)     Any AOC, ATO, and AMO shall implement a safety management system acceptable to the Authority that as a minimum —

     (1)     Identifies safety hazards;

     (2)     Ensures the implementation of remedial action necessary to maintain agreed safety performance;

     (3)     Provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the safety performance; and

     (4)     Aims at a continuous improvement of the overall performance of the safety management system.

     (b)     The safety management system shall clearly define lines of safety accountability throughout the organisation including a direct accountability for safety on the part of senior management.

     (c)     The safety management system shall contain the components and elements prescribed in Implementing Standards.

     (d)     No AOC, ATO or AMO shall be required to comply with the requirements of this section prior to 30^th October 2013.

Note 1: Guidance on defining safety performance is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety Management Manual.

Note 2: The framework for the implementation and maintenance of a safety management system is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety Management Manual, Appendix 4.

Note 3: The framework for a STATE Safety Programme (SSP) is contained in ICAO Annex 1: Attachment C and ICAO Annex 6, Part I: Attachment I.

PART 2

PERSONNEL LICENSING

CONTENTS

2.1     GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

     2.1.1     General

     2.1.1.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Part prescribes —

     (1)     the requirements for issuing airman licences, and ratings; and authorizations to those licences, as applicable;

     (2)     the conditions under which those licences, ratings, and authorizations are necessary; and

     (3)     the privileges and limitations of holders of those licences, ratings, and authorizations.

     2.1.1.2  DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     2.1.1.3  ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Part —

     (1)     A – Aeroplane.

     (2)     AIP – Aeronautical Information Publication.

     (3)     AME – Aviation Medical Examiner.

     (4)     AMO – Approved Maintenance Organisation.

     (5)     AMT – Aircraft Maintenance Technician.

     (6)     AOC – Air Operator Certificate.

     (7)     ATO – Aviation Training Organisation.

     (8)     AC – Advisory Circular.

     (9)     cm – centimetre(s).

     (10)     dB – decibels.

     (11)     ATCO – Air Traffic Controller.

     (12)     AS – Airship.

     (13)     ATPL – Airline Transport Pilot Licence.

     (14)     B – Balloon.

     (15)     CAT II – Category II.

     (16)     CAT III –Category III.

     (17)     CPL – Commercial Pilot Licence.

     (18)     CRM – Crew Resource Management.

     (19)     DFEE – Designated Flight Engineer Examiner.

     (20)     DFNE – Designated Flight Navigator Examiner.

     (21)     DFOOE – Designated Flight Operations Officer Examiner.

     (22)     DME – Designated Mechanic Examiner.

     (23)     DPE – Designated Pilot Examiner.

     (24)     DPRE – Designated Parachute Rigger Examiner.

     (25)     FE – Flight Engineer.

     (26)     FI – Flight Instructor.

     (27)     FOO – Flight Operations Officer.

     (28)     G – Glider.

     (29)     IA – Inspection Authorization.

     (30)     IFR – Instrument Flight Rules.

     (31)     ILS – Instrument Landing System.

     (32)     H – Helicopter.

     (33)     ICAO – International Civil Aviation Organisation.

     (34)     LWTR – Licence Without Type Rating.

     (35)     MPA – Multi-pilot Aeroplane.

     (36)     MPH – Multi-pilot Helicopter.

     (37)     NOTAM – Notice to airmen.

     (38)     OECS – Organisation of Eastern Caribbean States.

     (39)     PIC – pilot-in-command.

     (40)     PL – Powered-lift

     (41)     PPL – Private Pilot Licence.

     (42)     RT – Radiotelephony.

     (43)     SPA – Single-pilot Aeroplane.

     (44)     SPH – Single-pilot Helicopter.

     (45)     SPL – Student Pilot Licence.

     (46)     VFR – Visual Flight Rules.

     2.1.2     Licences, Ratings, and Authorizations

     2.1.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This section describes the licences, ratings and pilot authorizations issued by the Authority and prescribes the requirements for testing and validating such licences, ratings and authorizations.

     2.1.2.1  (A)  APPLICATION

An applicant for a pilot licence shall apply to the Authority in the manner prescribed in IS 2.1.2.1(a)

     2.1.2.2  LICENCES ISSUED

     (a)     The Authority may issue the following licences under this Part —

     (1)     pilot licences —

     (i)     student pilot;

     (ii)     private pilot;

     (iii)     commercial pilot; and

     (iv)     airline transport pilot.

     (2)     flight engineer licence;

     (3)     air traffic controller licence;

     (4)     aviation maintenance technician (AMT) licence;

     (5)     radio operator licence.

     2.1.2.3  RATINGS ISSUED

     (a)     The Authority may issue the following ratings for pilots —

     (1)     Category ratings in the following aircraft —

     (i)     Aeroplane.

     (ii)     Helicopter.

     (iii)     Glider.

     (iv)     Free Balloon.

     (v)     Airship.

     (vi)     Powered lift.

     (2)     Class ratings in the following aircraft —

     (i)     Single-engine land – aeroplane.

     (ii)     Single-engine sea – aeroplane.

     (iii)     Multi-engine land – aeroplane.

     (iv)     Multi-engine sea - aeroplane.

     (v)     A class rating may be issued for those helicopters certificated for single-pilot operations and which have comparable handling, performance and other characteristics.

     (vi)     Hot air – balloon.

     (vii)     Gas – balloon.

     (viii)     Any rating considered necessary by the Authority.

     (3)     Type ratings in the following aircraft —

     (i)     Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air);

     (ii)     Turbojet or turbofan powered aeroplanes;

     (iii)     Each type of helicopter certificated for single-pilot except where a class rating has been established under (a)(2)(v).

     (iv)     Aircraft certificated for at least two pilots;

     (v)     All aircraft used in public transport operations; and

     (vi)     Any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.

     (4)     Instrument ratings in the following aircraft —

     (i)     Instrument – Aeroplane.

     (ii)     Instrument – Helicopter.

     (iii)     Instrument – Powered lift.

Note.—The instrument rating is included in the CPL-Airship and the ATPL-Aeroplane and Powered-lift.

     (5)     Flight Instructor ratings —

     (i)     The appropriate aircraft category, class, instrument or type rating according to the instruction to be taught.

     (ii)     The Authority may issue the following ratings to place on a ground instructor's licence when an applicant satisfactorily accomplished the requirements of this Part for the rating sought —

     (b)     The Authority may issue the following ratings for flight engineers —

     (1)     Reciprocating engine powered.

     (2)     Turbopropeller powered.

     (3)     Turbojet powered.

     (c)     The Authority may issue the following ratings for air traffic controllers —

     (1)     Aerodrome control rating.

     (2)     Approach control procedural rating.

     (3)     Approach control surveillance rating.

     (4)     Area control procedural rating.

     (5)     Area control surveillance rating.

     (d)     The Authority may issue the following ratings for AMTs —

     (1)     Airframe.

     (2)     Powerplant.

     (3)     Avionics.

     (4)     Any other specialized ratings as may be determined by the Authority.

     (e)     The Authority may issue ratings as appropriate to an aviation repairman specialist licence.

     (f)     The Authority may issue the following ratings to place on a parachute rigger's licence when an applicant satisfactorily accomplished the requirements of this Part for the rating sought —

     (1)     Seat.

     (2)     Back.

     (3)     Chest.

     (4)     Lap.

     2.1.2.4  AUTHORIZATIONS ISSUED

The Authority may issue the following authorizations under this Part —

     (a)     Category II pilot authorization;

     (b)     Category III pilot authorization.

     2.1.2.5  DURATION OF LICENCES, RATINGS, AND AUTHORIZATIONS

     (a)     A licence shall be issued without a specific expiration date.

     (b)     The exercise of any of the privileges of a licence issued under this Part shall be dependent on the validity of such licence in respect of —

     (1)     the medical currency of such licence;

     (2)     the competency of the licence holder; and

     (3)     the recency of experience of the licence holder.

     (c)     The validity period of medical certificates issued under this Part shall be in accordance with IS 2.1.2.5.

     2.1.2.6  LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY

     (a)     Applicants for, or holders of pilots, flight engineers, air traffic controllers, flight operations and radio operator licences shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand the English language to at least the Operational Level 4, with the aim to speak at the Expert Level 6 as specified in the language proficiency requirements in IS 2.1.2.6;

     (b)     The language proficiency of applicants or licence holders identified in item (a)     shall be formally evaluated at intervals in accordance with an individual's demonstrated proficiency level as follows —

     (1)     those demonstrating language proficiency at the Operational Level 4 shall be evaluated at intervals not greater than 3 years;

     (2)     those demonstrating language proficiency at the Extended Level 5 shall be evaluated at intervals not greater than 6 years; and

     (3)     those demonstrating language proficiency at the Expert Level 6 shall be exempt from further language evaluation;

Note: See Implementing Standard 2.1.2.6 for detailed language proficiency requirements

     2.1.2.7  GENERAL REQUIREMENTS: PERSONNEL LICENCES, RATINGS, AND AUTHORIZATIONS

     (a)     The Authority may issue to an applicant who cannot comply with certain eligibility requirements or areas of operations required for the issue of a licence because of physical limitations, or for other reasons, a licence, rating, or authorization with an appropriate limitation provided the —

     (1)     applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the licence, rating, or authorization sought;

     (2)     physical limitation, if any, has been recorded with the Authority on the applicant's medical records; and

     (3)     authority determines that the applicant's inability to perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect safety.

     (b)     The Authority may remove a limitation placed on a person's licence provided that person demonstrates to an examiner or inspector satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation to which the limitation applies, or otherwise shows compliance with conditions to remove the limitation, as applicable.

     (c)     A person shall not act as a required pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within Antigua & Barbuda, unless that person's pilot licence was issued under this Part, or was issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered.

     (d)     A person shall not act as a pilot, flight instructor, required flight crew member, or air traffic controller unless that person holds an appropriate and current medical certificate issued under this Part, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.5.2.3 for persons exempt from holding a medical certificate.

     (e)     Flight Instructor Rating —

     (1)     except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this subsection, a person other than the holder of a flight instructor rating with appropriate endorsements on his licence shall not —

     (i)     give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross country flight;

     (ii)     endorse an applicant for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor licence or rating issued under this part;

     (iii)     endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or

     (iv)     endorse a student pilot licence and logbook for solo operating privileges.

     (2)     The following instructors do not have to hold a flight instructor rating —

     (i)     the holder of a commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in a lighter-than-air aircraft;

     (ii)     the holder of an airline transport pilot licence with appropriate ratings, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program;

     (iii)     a person who is qualified in accordance with Part 3, Subpart 3.4, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved training program;

     (iv)     a flight instructor, qualified in accordance with 2.1.4.8, not rated by the Authority;

     (v)     the holder of a ground instructor licence in accordance with the privileges of the licence; or

     (vi)     A person shall not act as the PIC or co-pilot of an aircraft unless that person holds the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class rating and type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, except where the pilot —

     (3)     is receiving training for the purpose of obtaining an additional pilot licence or rating that is appropriate to that aircraft while under the supervision of an authorised instructor; or

     (4)     has received training required by this Part that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and has received the required endorsements from an authorised instructor.

     (f)     A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire, unless that pilot holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft.

Note.—This subsection does not require a category and class rating for an aircraft not type certified as an aeroplane, rotorcraft, glider, powered-lift, or lighter-than-air aircraft.

     (g)     Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this subsection, a person shall not act as PIC of a complex aeroplane, high-performance aeroplane, or a pressurised aircraft capable of flight above 25,000 feet MSL, or an aircraft that the Authority has determined requires aircraft type specific training unless the person has —

     (1)     received and logged ground and flight training from an authorised instructor in the applicable aeroplane type, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of that, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of that aeroplane; and

     (2)     received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorised instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate that aircraft.

     (h)     The training and endorsement required by paragraph (h) of this subsection is not required if the person has logged flight time as PIC of that type of aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of such an aircraft.

     (i)     Additional training required for operating tailwheel aeroplanes. Except as provided in paragraph (j)(3) of this subsection, a person shall not act as PIC of a tailwheel aeroplane unless that person has —

     (1)     received and logged flight training from an authorised instructor in a tailwheel aeroplane on the manoeuvres and procedures listed in paragraph (j)(2) of this subsection;

     (2)     received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorised instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel aeroplane, to include at least normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings, wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings), and go around procedures;

     (3)     the training and endorsement required by this subsection is not required if the person logged PIC time in a tailwheel aeroplane before.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.2.7 for details on additional requirements and exemptions to the training requirements of this subsection.

     2.1.3     Validation and Conversion of Foreign Licences and Ratings

     2.1.3.1  VALIDATION OF FOREIGN PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a valid and current private pilot licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a validation of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (ii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence that he/she holds either a current medical certificate issued under Part 2 or a current medical certificate issued by the Contracting State that issued the applicant's licence.

     (A)     The Authority may allow the applicant to use his or her foreign medical certificate with the validation certificate provided that the medical certification requirements on which the foreign medical certificate was issued meet the requirements of Part 2, relevant to the licence held.

     (iii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6. or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings, authorizations and the medical certificate with the state of licence issue prior to issuing the validation.

     (3)     The Authority will only validate ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the validation of a licence.

     (4)     The Authority may issue a validation certificate for a period not exceeding6 months, provided the foreign licence, ratings or authorizations and the medical certificate remain valid.

     (5)     The Authority will place on the validation certificate issued under this Subsection the pilot's foreign licence number and country of issuance.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a) above, the applicant for a validation certificate shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority knowledge of any subject areas deemed relevant to the licence to be validated.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

     2.1.3.2  CONVERSION OF FOREIGN PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a valid and current private pilot licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a conversion of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (ii)     The applicant holds a Class 2 medical certificate issued under Part 2.

     (iii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6. or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings and authorizations with the state of licence issue prior to the conversion of the licence.

     (3)     The Authority will convert ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the conversion of a licence

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a) above, the applicant for a licence conversion shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be converted of —

     (i)     Air Law; and

     (ii)     Any other subject areas deemed necessary by the Authority.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be converted relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

     2.1.3.3  VALIDATION OF FOREIGN COMMERCIAL AND AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCES AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a valid and current commercial or airline transport pilot licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a validation of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (ii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence that he or she holds either a current medical certificate issued under Part 2 or a current medical certificate issued by the Contracting State that issued the applicant's licence.

     (A)     The Authority may allow the applicant to use his/her foreign medical certificate with the validation certificate provided that the medical certification requirements on which the foreign medical certificate was issued meet the requirements of Part 2, relevant to the licence held.

     (iii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6 or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (iv)     The application is supported by the relevant operator.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings, authorizations and the medical certificate with the state of licence issue prior to issuing the validation.

     (3)     The Authority will only validate ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the validation of a licence

     (4)     The Authority may issue a validation certificate for a period not exceeding 6 months, provided the foreign licence, ratings or authorizations and the medical certificate remain valid.

     (5)     The Authority will place on the validation certificate issued under this Subsection the pilot's foreign licence number and country of issuance.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a) above, the applicant for a validation certificate shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority knowledge of any subject areas deemed relevant to the licence to be validated.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.2.7 for details on additional requirements and exemptions to the training requirements of this subsection.

     2.1.3.4  CONVERSION OF FOREIGN COMMERCIAL AND AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCES AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a valid and current commercial or airline transport pilot licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a conversion of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (ii)     The applicant holds a Class 2 medical certificate issued under Part 2.

     (iii)     The application is supported by the relevant operator.

     (iv)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6. or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings, authorizations with the state of licence issue prior to the conversion of a licence.

     (3)     The Authority will only convert ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a)     above, the applicant for a conversion shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be validated of —

     (i)     Air Law; and

     (ii)     Any other subject areas deemed necessary by the Authority.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be converted relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

     2.1.4     General Testing and Training Requirements

     2.1.4.1  TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURE

Tests prescribed by or under this Part are given at times and places and by persons designated by the Authority.

     2.1.4.2  KNOWLEDGE TEST: PREREQUISITES AND PASSING GRADES

     (a)     An applicant for a knowledge test shall have —

     (1)     received an endorsement from an authorised instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished a ground-training or a home-study course required by this Part for the licence or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; and

     (2)     proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's —

     (i)     photograph;

     (ii)     signature;

     (iii)     date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this Part for the licence sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and

     (iv)     actual residential address, if different from the applicant's mailing address.

     (b)     The minimum passing grade for the knowledge test shall be as in the applicable personnel licensing advisory circular (PLAC).

     2.1.4.3  PRACTICAL TEST: PREREQUISITES

     (a)     To be eligible for a practical test, an applicant shall meet all applicable requirements for the licence or rating sought.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.4.3 for the eligibility requirements of a practical test.

     (b)     If an applicant does not complete all increments of a practical test for a licence or rating on one date, the applicant shall complete all remaining increments of the test not more than 30 calendar days after that date.

     (c)     If an applicant does not satisfactorily complete all increments of the practical test for a licence or a rating within 30 calendar days after beginning the test, the applicant shall retake the entire practical test, including those increments satisfactorily completed.

     2.1.4.4  PRACTICAL TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURES

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraph (b)     of this subsection, the Authority will determine an applicant's ability to hold a licence or rating issued under this Subpart based on the applicant's ability to safely perform the following during a practical test —

     (1)     Perform the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the licence or rating sought within the prescribed standards;

     (2)     demonstrate mastery of the aircraft;

     (3)     demonstrate sound judgement; and

     (4)     demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type certified for single-pilot operations.

     (b)     If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant fails the practical test.

     (c)     An applicant is not eligible for a licence or rating sought until all the areas of operation are passed.

     (d)     The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time —

     (1)     when the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or

     (2)     due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or any other safety-of-flight concern.

     (e)     If a practical test is discontinued, the Authority may give the applicant credit for those areas of operation already passed, but only if the applicant —

     (1)     passes the remainder of the practical test within the 30-day period after the date the practical test was begun;

     (2)     presents to the examiner for the retest, the original notice of disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;

     (3)     satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training is required.

     2.1.4.5  PRACTICAL TESTS: REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT

Except when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant for a licence or rating issued under this Part shall furnish an aircraft with the necessary equipment and controls.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.4.5 for required equipment and controls for practical tests.

     2.1.4.6  RETESTING AFTER FAILURE

     (a)     An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received —

     (1)     the necessary training from an authorised instructor who has determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and

     (2)     an endorsement from an authorised instructor who gave the applicant the additional training.

     (b)     An applicant for a flight instructor rating with an aeroplane category rating or, for a flight instructor rating with a glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery shall —

     (1)     comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection before being retested;

     (2)     bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for the rating sought and is certified for spins; and

     (3)     demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during the retest.

     2.1.4.7  RECORDS OF TRAINING TIME

A person shall document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Authority —

     (1)     training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a licence, rating, qualification, authorization, or flight review of this Part;

     (2)     the aeronautical experience required to show recent flight experience requirements of these Regulations.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.4.7 for flight time to be recorded.

     2.1.4.8  FLIGHT TRAINING RECEIVED FROM FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS NOT RATED BY THE AUTHORITY

     (a)     A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot licence or rating if that person received the training from —

     (1)     a flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training military pilots of either —

     (a)     Antigua & Barbuda; or

     (b)     another Contracting State; or

     (2)     a flight instructor authorised to give such training by the licensing authority of a Contracting State, provided that the flight training is given outside Antigua & Barbuda.

     (b)     A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this subsection is authorised to give only the endorsements to show training given.

     2.1.4.9  LIMITATIONS ON THE USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATORS AND FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES

     (a)     Except as specified in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this subsection, an airman shall not receive credit for use of any flight simulator or flight training device for satisfying any training, testing, or checking requirement of this part unless that flight simulator or flight training device is approved by the Authority for —

     (1)     the training, testing, and checking for which it is used;

     (2)     each particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crewmember function performed; and

     (3)     the representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.

     (b)     The Authority will consider as a flight training device any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that the Authority has accepted or approved, which any user can show to function as originally designed, provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.

     (c)     The Authority may approve a device other than a flight training simulator or flight training device for specific purposes.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.4.9 for requirements on the use of approved simulators and flight training devices.

     2.1.4.10  (RESERVED)

     2.1.4.11  SYNTHETIC FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE

     (a)     A Synthetic Flight Training Device is classified as —

     (1)     flight training device (FTD);

     (2)     full flight simulator (FFS).

     (b)     Synthetic flight training devices shall be used if available otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure.

2.2     CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS

     2.2.1     Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

     2.2.1.1  GENERAL REQUIREMENT

To be eligible for an aircraft rating or authorization to a pilot licence, an applicant shall meet the appropriate requirements of this section for the aircraft rating or authorization sought.

     2.2.1.2  INSTRUMENT RATING REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for an instrument rating shall —

     (1)     hold a pilot licence with an aircraft category and class rating for the instrument rating sought;

     (2)     receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorised instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test;

     (3)     pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas, unless the applicant already holds an instrument rating in another category; and

     (4)     pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in —

     (a)     the aircraft category, class, and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; or

     (b)     a flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and approved for the specific manoeuvre or procedure performed.

     (c)     Aeronautical knowledge. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have received and logged ground training from an authorised instructor on the areas of aeronautical knowledge that apply to the instrument rating.

     (d)     Flight proficiency. An applicant for an instrument rating shall receive and log training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this subsection.

Note: If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engined aeroplanes, the applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in such an aeroplane from an authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in the operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated inoperative.

     (e)     Aeronautical experience. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have logged the required aeronautical experience shown in the implementing standard for this subsection.

     (f)     Use of approved flight simulators or approved flight training devices. If the instrument training was provided by an authorised instructor in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant may perform —

     (1)     a maximum of 30 hours in that flight simulator or flight training device if the training was accomplished in accordance with a training program approved under Part 3, Subpart 3.2; or

     (2)     a maximum of 20 hours in that flight simulator or flight training device if the training was not accomplished in accordance with a training program approved under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.1.2 for additional requirements pertaining to the knowledge test, practical test, aeronautical experience, and aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating.

     2.2.1.3  CATEGORY RATING

     (a)     A pilot seeking a category rating —

     (1)     shall have received the required training and possess the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought;

     (2)     shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorised instructor that the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought —

     (i)     aeronautical knowledge areas;

     (ii)     areas of operation.

     (3)     shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought; and

     (4)     need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

     2.2.1.4  CLASS RATING

     (a)     A pilot seeking a class rating —

     (1)     shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorised instructor that the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence and for the aircraft class rating sought —

     (i)     aeronautical knowledge areas;

     (ii)     areas of operation.

     (2)     shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft class rating sought;

     (3)     need not meet the training time requirements prescribed by this Part for the aircraft class rating sought; and

     (4)     need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

     2.2.1.5  TYPE RATING

     (a)     A pilot seeking an aircraft type rating to be added on a pilot licence, or the addition of an aircraft type rating that is accomplished concurrently with an additional aircraft category or class rating —

     (1)     Shall have gained experience in an aircraft or flight simulator and recorded that experience in his or her logbook or training record showing demonstrated competency in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category, class and type rating sought —

     (i)     Normal flight procedures and manoeuvres during all phases of flight;

     (ii)     Abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres in the event of failures and malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe;

     (iii)     Where applicable, instrument procedures, including instrument approach, missed approach and landing procedures under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure;

     (iv)     Procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination including allocation of pilot tasks; crew cooperation and use of checklists.

     (2)     Shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft category, class, and type rating sought; demonstrating —

     (i)     The skill and knowledge required for the safe operation of the applicable type of aircraft, relevant to the duties of a pilot-in-command or a co-pilot as applicable; and

     (ii)     At the airline transport pilot licence level, an extent of knowledge required by the Authority.

     (b)     In addition to (a) above, a pilot employee of an AOC holder shall —

     (1)     Hold or concurrently obtain an instrument rating that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class or type rating sought;

     (2)     Except as provided for in paragraphs (e) and (f), shall perform the practical test under instrument flight rules;

     (3)     Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on their pilot licence; and

     (4)     Received an endorsement in his or her flight training record from the certificate holder certifying that the applicant has completed the certificate holder's approved ground and flight training programme appropriate to the aircraft type rating sought.

     (c)     An applicant for a type rating who provides an aircraft not capable of the instrument manoeuvres and procedures required by the appropriate requirements for the practical test may —

     (1)     Obtain a type rating limited to “VFR only”; and

     (2)     Remove the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type in which the applicant demonstrates compliance with the appropriate instrument requirements of this Part.

     (d)     The Authority may issue to an applicant for a type rating a licence with the limitation “VFR only” for each aircraft type not equipped for the applicant to show instrument proficiency.

     (e)     An applicant for a type rating in a multi-engine, single-pilot station aeroplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multi-seat version of that multi engine aeroplane.

     (f)     An applicant for a type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station aeroplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multi-seat version of that single-engine aeroplane.

     (g)     An applicant for a type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station aeroplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multiseat version of that single-engine aeroplane.

     2.2.1.6  CATEGORY II AND III PILOT AUTHORIZATION REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     General. An applicant for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization shall —

     (1)     hold a pilot licence with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot licence;

     (2)     hold a category and class rating, and type rating, if applicable, for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; and

     (3)     complete the practical test requirements.

     (b)     Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization shall have at least —

     (1)     fifty hours of night flight time as PIC;

     (2)     seventy-five hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than —

     (i)     a combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device; or

     (ii)     forty hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     (iii)     two hundred and fifty hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.

     (c)     On passing a practical test for a Category II or III pilot authorization, a pilot may renew that authorization for each type of aircraft for which the pilot holds authorization.

     (d)     If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal after the aurhorisation expires, the Authority shall renew the authorization from the date the applicant satisfactorily passed the practical test.

     (e)     If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorization expires, the Authority will consider that the holder passed it during the month the authorization expired.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.1.6 for additional requirements concerning Category II and III pilot authorizations.

     2.2.1.7  (RESERVED)

     2.2.2     Student Pilots

     2.2.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot licences, the conditions under which those licences are necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those licences.

     2.2.2.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS FOR STUDENT PILOTS

To be eligible for a student pilot licence, an applicant shall —

     (a)     be at least 17 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 2 medical certificate issued under Part 2;

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6.

     2.2.2.3  APPLICATION

An applicant for a student pilot licence shall apply to the Authority in the prescribed manner.

     2.2.2.4  SOLO REQUIREMENTS FOR STUDENT PILOTS

     (a)     General —

     (1)     A student pilot shall not fly solo unless under the supervision of, or with the authority of, an authorized flight instructor;

     (2)     A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student has met the requirements of this subsection.

     (b)     Aeronautical knowledge —

     (1)     a student pilot shall satisfactorily pass an aeronautical knowledge test on the following subjects —

     (i)     applicable sections of this Part and Part 8;

     (ii)     airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the student will perform solo flight; and

     (iii)     flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be flown.

     (2)     The student's authorised instructor shall —

     (i)     administer the test; and

     (ii)     at the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorising that student to conduct a solo flight.

     (3)     Pre solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall have —

     (i)     received and logged flight training for the manoeuvres and procedures of this subsection that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

     (ii)     demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorised instructor, on the manoeuvres and procedures required by this subsection in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft to be flown.

     (4)     Manoeuvres and procedures for pre-solo flight training. A student pilot shall receive and log flight training for required manoeuvres and procedures.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.2.4 for required manoeuvres and procedures for a student pilot.

     2.2.2.5  GENERAL LIMITATIONS

     (a)     A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft —

     (1)     that is carrying a passenger;

     (2)     that is carrying property for compensation or hire;

     (3)     that is operated for compensation or hire;

     (4)     in furtherance of a business;

     (5)     on an international flight;

     (6)     with a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;

     (7)     when the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or

     (8)     in a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's logbook by an authorised instructor.

     (b)     A student pilot shall not act as a required pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the aircraft type certificate, or by these Regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorised instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.

     (c)     A student pilot shall not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight, an endorsement from an authorised instructor for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown made —

     (1)     on his or her student pilot licence; and

     (2)     in the student's logbook.

     (d)     A student pilot shall not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received —

     (1)     flight training at night that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings and go-arounds at night at the airport where the student will conduct solo flight;

     (2)     navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the student pilot will conduct solo flight; and

     (3)     an endorsement for night solo flight.

     2.2.2.6  SOLO CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, a student pilot shall meet the requirements of this subsection before —

     (i)     conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated; and

     (ii)     making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origination.

     (2)     except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall —

     (i)     have received flight training from an authorised instructor on the manoeuvres and procedures of this subsection that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought;

     (ii)     have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate manoeuvres and procedures of this subsection to an authorised instructor;

     (iii)     have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight manoeuvres and procedures required by IS: 2.2.2.6 in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and

     (iv)     comply with any limitations included in the instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this subsection.

     (3)     a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall have received ground and flight training from an authorised instructor on the cross-country manoeuvres and procedures listed in this subsection that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.

     (b)     Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights. A student pilot shall obtain an endorsement from an authorised instructor to make solo flights, subject to the following conditions —

     (1)     a student pilot may make solo flights to another airport that is within 25 nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided —

     (i)     the authorised instructor who makes the endorsement gave the student pilot flight training at the other airport, and that training included flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and takeoffs and landings at the other airport;

     (ii)     the student pilot has a current solo flight endorsement in accordance with 2.2.2.4.

     (iii)     the instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to make the flight; and

     (iv)     the purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings at that other airport.

     (2)     a student pilot may make repeated specific solo cross-country flights to another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided —

     (i)     the authorised instructor who gave the endorsement gave the student flight training in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airport to be used;

     (ii)     the student has current solo flight endorsements in accordance with 2.2.2.4; and

     (iii)     the student has a current solo cross-country flight endorsement in accordance with paragraph (c) of this subsection, except that separate endorsements are not required for each flight made under this paragraph.

     (c)     Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2), a student pilot shall have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each make and model aircraft the student will fly on each cross-country flight —

     (1)     student pilot licence endorsement —

     (i)     a student pilot shall have a solo cross-country endorsement placed on the student pilot licence by the authorised instructor who conducted the training.

     (2)     logbook endorsement —

     (i)     a student pilot shall have a solo cross-country endorsement placed in the student pilot's logbook by the authorised instructor who conducted the training;

     (ii)     a licenced pilot who is receiving training for an additional aircraft category and class rating shall have an endorsement placed in the pilot's logbook by the authorised instructor who conducted the training.

     (d)     Manoeuvres and procedures for cross-country flight training. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight shall receive and log flight training in the required manoeuvres and procedures.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.2.6 for list of required manoeuvres and procedures.

     2.2.3     Private Pilots

     2.2.3.1  APPLICABILITY

This subsection prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

     2.2.3.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

To be eligible for a private pilot licence, a person shall —

     (a)     be at least 17 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 2 medical certificate issued under Part 2.;

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6

     (d)     receive a logbook endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorised instructor who —

     (1)     conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in 2.2.3.3 that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

     (2)     certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test.

     (e)     pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in 2.2.3.3.

     (f)     receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who —

     (1)     conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in 2.2.3.4(a) that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

     (2)     certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

     (g)     meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test;

     (h)     pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in 2.2.3.4(a) that apply to the aircraft rating sought;

     (i)     comply with the appropriate sections of Subpart 2.2 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

     2.2.3.3  AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE

An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas shown in IS: 2.2.3.3.

     2.2.3.4  FLIGHT PROFICIENCY

An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log flight training from an authorised instructor and shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor or complete a home-study course on the following areas of operation —

     (a)     for all categories, class and type ratings, as applicable —

     (1)     preflight preparation;

     (2)     preflight procedures;

     (3)     airport and seaplane base operations;

     (4)     takeoffs, landings, and go arounds;

     (5)     performance manoeuvres;

     (6)     ground reference manoeuvres;

     (7)     navigation;

     (8)     slow flight and stalls;

     (9)     basic instrument manoeuvres;

     (10)     emergency operations;

     (11)     night operations; and

     (12)     postflight procedures.

     (b)     for the category and class ratings shown below, the applicable areas of operation shown in paragraph (a) and —

     (1)     aeroplane category rating with a multiengine class rating —

     (i)     multiengine operations.

     (2)     rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating —

     (i)     airport and heliport operations; and

     (ii)     hovering manoeuvres.

     (3)     rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating —

     (i)     flight at slow airspeeds.

     (4)     powered-lift category rating —

     (i)     airport and heliport operations; and

     (ii)     hovering manoeuvres.

     (5)     glider category rating —

     (i)     airport and gliderport operations;

     (ii)     launches and landings;

     (iii)     performance speeds; and

     (iv)     soaring techniques.

     (6)     lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating —

     (i)     launches and landings.

     2.2.3.5  AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE

     (a)     An applicant for a private pilot licence with an aeroplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift category rating shall receive and log one of the following minimum flight training times —

     (1)     at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorised instructor, and

     (2)     10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in 2.2.3.4,

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.3.5 for minimum aeronautical training requirement.

     (b)     Except when fewer hours are approved by the Authority, an applicant who has satisfactorily completed a private pilot course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2 need have only a total of 35 hours of aeronautical experience.

     (c)     When the applicant has flight time as a pilot of aircraft in other categories, the Authority shall determine whether such experience is acceptable and, if so, the extent to which the flight time requirements of 2.2.3.5(a) may be reduced.

     (d)     An applicant for a private pilot licence may credit one of the following in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought —

     (i)     a maximum of 2.5 hours of training, if received from an authorised instructor other than an ATO; or

     (ii)     a maximum of 5 hours of training if the training is accomplished in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     2.2.3.6  CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHTS: PILOTS BASED ON SMALL ISLANDS

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, an applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight training required in 2.2.2.6 cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.

     (b)     If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant shall show completion of 2 round trip solo flights between those 2 airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights.

     (c)     The Authority shall issue to an applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this subsection, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private pilot licence, except the cross-country training requirements of 2.2.2.6 of this Subpart, a pilot licence with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The Authority may subsequently amend the limitation to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this subsection for another island.

     (d)     On meeting the cross-country training requirements of 2.2.2.6, an applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (c) of this subsection removed.

     2.2.3.7  PRIVATE PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS: REQUIRED CREWMEMBER

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, a private pilot shall not act as a required crewmember of an aircraft —

     (1)     carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; or

     (2)     operated for compensation or hire.

     (b)     A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as a required crewmember of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if —

     (1)     the flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and

     (2)     the aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

     (c)     A private pilot may act as a required crewmember of an aircraft used in a passenger carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organisation described in paragraph (c)(7) of this subsection, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organisation, when the following requirements are met —

     (1)     the sponsor of the airlift notifies the office of the Authority with jurisdiction over the area concerned at least 7 days before the event and furnishes —

     (i)     a signed letter from the sponsor that shows the name of the sponsor, the purpose of the charitable event, the date and time of the event, and the location of the event; and

     (ii)     a photocopy of each required crewmember's pilot licence, medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current and has logged at least 200 hours of flight time;

     (iii)     the flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate for the aircraft to be used, or from another airport that has been approved by the Authority for the operation;

     (iv)     no aerobatic or formation flights are conducted;

     (v)     an aircraft used for the charitable event holds a standard airworthiness certificate;

     (vi)     an aircraft used for the charitable event is airworthy and complies with the applicable requirements of Part 8;

     (vii)     a flight for the charitable event is made during day VFR conditions; and

     (viii)     the charitable organisation is an organisation identified as such by the appropriate authority of the government.

     (d)     A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of —

     (1)     a relevant Government agency; or

     (2)     an organisation that conducts search and location operations.

     (e)     A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.

     (f)     A private pilot shall not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

     (g)     Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, a private pilot shall not, for compensation or hire, act as SIC of an aircraft that is type certified for more than one pilot.

     2.2.3.8  PRIVATE PILOT WITH BALLOON RATING: LIMITATIONS

     (a)     If an applicant for a private pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater —

     (1)     the Authority shall place on the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a balloon with an airborne heater; and

     (2)     the pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

     (b)     If an applicant for a private pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon —

     (1)     the Authority shall place on the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privilege of that licence to a gas balloon; and

     (2)     the pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the pilot's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

     2.2.4     Commercial Pilots

     2.2.4.1  APPLICABILITY

This subsection prescribes the requirements for the issuance of commercial pilot licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

     2.2.4.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

To be eligible for a commercial pilot licence, a person shall —

     (a)     be at least 18 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 1 medical certificate issued under Part 2;

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6;

     (d)     receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who —

     (1)     conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in IS: 2.2.4.3 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

     (2)     certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought —

     (i)     pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in IS: 2.2.4.3;

     (ii)     receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who —

     (A)     conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in IS: 2.2.4.3 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

     (B)     certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

     (3)     meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

     (4)     pass the required practical test on the areas of operation listed in IS: 2.2.4.4 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

     (5)     hold a private pilot licence issued under this Subpart; and

     (6)     comply with all sections of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

     2.2.4.3  COMMERCIAL PILOT: AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas shown in IS: 2.2.4.3.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.4.3 for specific aeronautical knowledge area requirements.

     2.2.4.4  COMMERCIAL PILOT: FLIGHT PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall complete a home study course or receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor and shall receive and log flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category, class and type rating sought.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.4.4 for detailed requirements concerning training for aircraft category and class ratings sought.

     2.2.4.5  COMMERCIAL PILOT: AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE

     (a)     An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall obtain the required 250 flight hours of aeronautical experience set forth in IS: 2.2.4.5 —

     (1)     except when fewer hours are approved by the Authority, an applicant who has satisfactorily completed a commercial pilot course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2 need have only the following total aeronautical experience to meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subsection —

     (i)     one hundred and ninety hours for an aeroplane or powered-lift rating.

     (ii)     one hundred and fifty hours for a helicopter rating.

     (b)     An applicant for a commercial pilot licence may credit one of the maximum times for training in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing the applicable category, class, and type of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought —

     (1)     fifty hours for an aeroplane or powered-lift rating;

     (2)     twenty-five hours for a helicopter rating;

     (3)     one hundred hours for an aeroplane or powered lift rating in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2; or

     (4)     fifty hours for a helicopter rating in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.4.5 for specific required aeronautical experience

     2.2.4.6  COMMERCIAL PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

     (a)     Privileges —

A commercial pilot licence holder may act as PIC or co-pilot of an aircraft for compensation or hire, including the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the pilot is qualified in accordance with the applicable parts of these Regulations;

     (1)     a commercial pilot with a lighter than air category ratings may —

     (i)     for an airship —

     (A)     give flight and ground training in an airship for the issuance of a licence or rating;

     (B)     endorse a pilot licence for an airship; and

     (C)     act as PIC or co-pilot of an airship under IFR.

     (ii)     for a balloon —

     (D)     give flight and ground training in a balloon for the issuance of a licence or rating; and

     (E)     endorse a pilot licence for a balloon.

     (b)     Limitations —

     (1)     the Authority shall issue to an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with an aeroplane category or powered-lift category rating who does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class, a commercial pilot licence that contains the limitation, “The carriage of passengers for hire in (aeroplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.”

     (2)     a pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b) (1) by satisfactorily accomplishing the requirements listed in 2.2.1.2 for an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft that has the limitation;

     (3)     if an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater —

     (i)     the Authority shall place on the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a balloon with an airborne heater;

     (ii)     the pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the pilot's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

     (4)     if an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon —

     (i)     the Authority shall place on the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a gas balloon; and

     (ii)     the pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

     2.2.4.7  ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT CATEGORY, CLASS, AND TYPE RATINGS

     (a)     An applicant for a commercial pilot licence with a category rating who holds a commercial pilot licence with another aircraft category rating shall —

     (1)     meet the applicable eligibility requirements;

     (2)     pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas;

     (3)     meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements; and

     (4)     pass the practical test on the areas of operation.

     (b)     Aircraft type rating.

     (1)     An applicant seeking an aircraft type rating to be added on a commercial pilot licence shall pass a knowledge test appropriate to the type rating sought;

     (2)     Pass the required skill test on the applicable aircraft type.

     2.2.5     Airline Transport Pilots

     2.2.5.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline transport pilot licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

     2.2.5.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

To be eligible for an airline transport pilot licence, a person shall —

     (a)     be at least 21 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 1 medical certificate issued under Part 2.;

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6;

     (d)     meet at least one of the following requirements —

     (1)     hold a valid and current commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating; or

     (2)     hold either a foreign airline transport pilot or foreign commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating issued by another Contracting State.

     (3)     meet the aeronautical applicable experience requirements of this Subpart before applying for the practical test;

     (4)     pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas of IS: 2.2.5.3 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

     (5)     pass the practical test on the applicable areas of operation listed in 2.2.5.4 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

     2.2.5.3  AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE

     (a)     General. The Authority will administer a knowledge test for an airline transport pilot licence based on the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

     (b)     An applicant for an air transport licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas shown in IS: 2.2.5.3.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.5.3 for a list of required aeronautical knowledge areas.

     2.2.5.4  FLIGHT PROFICIENCY

An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence shall complete a home study course or receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor and shall receive and log flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category, class and type rating sought.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.5.4 for detailed requirements concerning training for aircraft category and class ratings sought.

     2.2.5.5  AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: AEROPLANE CATEGORY RATING

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this subsection, an applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with an aeroplane category and class rating shall have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least —

     (1)     five hundred hours of cross-country flight time;

     (2)     one hundred hours of night flight time;

     (3)     seventy-five hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions;

     (4)     not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing an aeroplane—

     (i)     twenty-five hours of simulated instrument time.

     (ii)     fifty hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2;

     (5)     one hundred hours of aeronautical experience requirements in an approved course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2; and

     (6)     two hundred and fifty hours of flight time in an aeroplane as a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC while under the supervision of a PIC or any combination thereof, which includes at least —

     (i)     one hundred hours of cross country flight time; and

     (ii)     twenty-five hours of night flight time.

     (b)     A pilot who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this subsection, not to exceed 25 hours of night flight time.

     (c)     A commercial pilot applicant may credit the following SIC flight time or flight-engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this subsection —

     (1)     SIC time acquired in an aeroplane —

     (i)     required to have more than one pilot by the aeroplane's flight manual or type certificate; or

     (ii)     engaged in operations under Part 9 for which a SIC is required.

     (2)     flight-engineer time acquired —

     (i)     in an aeroplane required to have a flight engineer by the aeroplane's flight manual or type certificate;

     (ii)     while engaged in operations under Part 9 for which a flight engineer is required;

     (iii)     while the pilot is participating in a pilot training program approved under Part 9; and

     (iv)     that does not exceed one hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.

     2.2.5.6  AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: ROTORCRAFT CATEGORY AND HELICOPTER CLASS RATING

An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, shall have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least —

     (a)     five hundred hours of cross-country flight time;

     (b)     one hundred hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in helicopters;

     (c)     two hundred hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 75 hours as a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof;

     (d)     seventy-five hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof;

     (e)     not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing a rotorcraft —

     (1)     twenty-five hours of simulated instrument time;

     (2)     fifty hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     2.2.5.7  AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: POWERED-LIFT FLIGHT TIME

     (a)     An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with a powered-lift category rating shall have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least —

     (1)     five hundred hours of cross-country flight time;

     (2)     one hundred hours of night flight time;

     (3)     two hundred and fifty hours in a powered-lift as a PIC, or as a SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof, which includes at least —

     (i)     one hundred hours of cross-country flight time; and

     (ii)     twenty-five hours of night flight time.

     (4)     seventy-five hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument conditions;

     (5)     not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing a powered-lift —

     (i)     twenty-five hours of simulated instrument time;

     (ii)     fifty hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     (b)     one hundred hours of aeronautical experience in an approved course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     2.2.5.8  ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT CATEGORY, CLASS, AND TYPE RATINGS

     (a)     An applicant for an airline transport licence with a category rating who holds an airline transport pilot licence with another aircraft category rating shall —

     (1)     meet the applicable eligibility requirements;

     (2)     pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas;

     (3)     meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements; and

     (4)     pass the practical test on the areas of operation.

     (b)     Aircraft type rating.

     (1)     An applicant seeking an aircraft type rating to be added on an airline transport pilot licence shall pass a knowledge test appropriate to the type rating sought;

     (2)     Pass the required skill test on the applicable aircraft type.

     2.2.5.9  AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT PRIVILEGES

     (a)     The Authority extends to the holder of an airline transport pilot licence the same privileges as those extended to a holder of a commercial pilot licence with an instrument rating and the privilege to act as PIC and SIC in aircraft in commercial air transportation.

     (b)     An airline transport pilot may instruct —

     (1)     other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline transport pilot is rated, and in simulation of those aircraft, and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;

     (2)     only as provided in this subsection, unless the airline transport pilot also holds a flight instructor licence, in which case the holder may exercise the instructor privileges of this Part for which he or she is rated.

     (c)     Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot shall not instruct in aircraft, approved flight simulators, and approved flight training devices under this subsection —

     (1)     for more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or

     (2)     for more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

     (d)     An airline transport pilot shall not instruct in Category II or Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as applicable.

     2.2.6     Flight Instructors

     2.2.6.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight instructor ratings, the conditions under which those ratings are necessary, and the limitations on those ratings.

     2.2.6.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS

To be eligible for a flight instructor rating a person shall —

     (a)     be at least 18 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 1 medical certificate issued under Part 2.;

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6;

     (d)     hold either a commercial pilot licence or airline transport pilot licence with —

     (1)     an aircraft category, class and rating that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

     (2)     an instrument rating, if the person holds a commercial pilot licence and is applying for a flight instructor rating with —

     (i)     an aeroplane category and single-engine class rating;

     (ii)     an aeroplane category and multiengine class rating;

     (iii)     a powered lift rating; or

     (iv)     an instrument rating.

     (3)     receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor on the fundamentals of instructing listed in 2.2.6.3 appropriate to the required knowledge test;

     (4)     pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in 2.2.6.3,

     (5)     receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation listed in 2.2.6.4, appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;

     (6)     pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought in an —

     (i)     aircraft that is representative of the category, class and type of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or

     (ii)     approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of the category, class and type of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     (7)     accomplish the following for a flight instructor rating with an aeroplane or a glider rating —

     (i)     receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after receiving flight training in those training areas in an aeroplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certified for spins;

     (ii)     demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures.

     (8)     an examiner may accept the endorsement specified in paragraph (8)(i) of this subsection as satisfactory evidence of instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the previous test for deficiencies in those knowledge or skill areas.

     (9)     if a retest is the result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate the requisite knowledge or skill, the applicant shall demonstrate the knowledge and skill to an examiner in an aeroplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certified for spins.

     (10)     log at least 15 hours as PIC in the category, class and type of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

     (11)     comply with the appropriate sections that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.

     2.2.6.3  AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE

     (a)     An applicant for a flight instructor rating shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor on the fundamentals of instructing, including —

     (1)     the learning process;

     (2)     elements of effective teaching;

     (3)     student evaluation and testing;

     (4)     course development;

     (5)     lesson planning; and

     (6)     classroom training techniques.

     (7)     the aeronautical knowledge areas for a private and commercial pilot licence applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and

     (8)     the aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.

     2.2.6.4  FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR: AREAS OF OPERATION FOR FLIGHT PROFICIENCY

     (a)     An applicant for a flight instructor rating shall receive and log flight and ground training, and an endorsement from an authorised instructor, that the person is proficient to pass a practical test for the flight instructor rating sought.

     (b)     An applicant may accomplish the flight training required by this subsection —

     (1)     in an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought; or

     (2)     in a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.6 4 for a list of areas of operation that apply to the practical test for a flight instructor rating.

     2.2.6.5  FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RECORDS

A flight instructor shall —

     (a)     sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or ground training;

     (b)     maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following —

     (1)     the name of each person whose logbook or student pilot licence that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and

     (2)     the name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and a record of the kind of test, the date, and the results; and

     (c)     retain the records required by this subsection for at least 3 years.

     2.2.6.6  ADDITIONAL FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR ENDORSEMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for an additional flight instructor endorsement shall meet the eligibility requirements listed in 2.2.6.2 that apply to the flight instructor endorsement sought.

     (b)     An applicant for an additional endorsement is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas listed in 2.2.6.3.

     2.2.6.7  FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES

A flight instructor is authorised within the limitations of that person's flight instructor rating, and pilot licence to give training and endorsements that are required for, and relate to —

     (a)     a student pilot licence;

     (b)     a pilot licence;

     (c)     a flight instructor licence;

     (d)     a ground instructor licence;

     (e)     an aircraft rating;

     (f)     an instrument rating;

     (g)     a flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience requirement;

     (h)     a practical test; and

     (i)     a knowledge test.

     2.2.6.8  FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LIMITATIONS AND QUALIFICATIONS

The holder of a flight instructor rating shall observe the limitations and qualifications applicable to flight instructors.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.2.6 8 for detailed list of flight instructor limitations and qualifications.

     2.2.6.9  RENEWAL OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATINGS

     (a)     A flight instructor rating that has not expired may be renewed for an additional 24 calendar months if the holder —

     (1)     passes a practical test for —

     (i)     renewal of the flight instructor rating; or

     (ii)     an additional flight instructor rating; or

     (2)     presents to an Authority inspector —

     (i)     a record of training students that shows during the preceding 24 calendar months the flight instructor has endorsed at least five students for a practical test for a licence or rating, and at least 80% of those students passed that test on the first attempt;

     (ii)     a record that shows that within the preceding 24 calendar months, service as a company check pilot, chief flight instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a Part 9 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of pilots; or

     (iii)     a graduation certificate showing that the pilot has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or both, within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of his or her flight instructor licence.

     (b)     If a flight instructor accomplishes the renewal requirements within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of his or her flight instructor rating —

     (1)     the Authority shall consider that the flight instructor accomplished the renewal requirement in the month due; and

     (2)     the Authority shall renew the current flight instructor licence for an additional 24 calendar months from its expiration date.

     (c)     A flight instructor may accomplish the practical test required by paragraph (a)(1) of this subsection in an approved course conducted by an ATO certified under Part 3, Subpart 3.2.

     2.2.6.10  EXPIRED FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING

The holder of an expired flight instructor rating may renew that rating by passing the prescribed test.

     2.2.7     (RESERVED)

2.3     CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PILOTS

     2.3.1     Flight Engineers

     2.3.1.1  APPLICABILITY

Subpart 2.3 prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer licences.

     2.3.1.2  LICENCES AND RATINGS REQUIRED

A person shall not act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of Antigua & Barbuda registry unless he or she has a flight engineer licence with appropriate ratings.

     2.3.1.3  (RESERVED)

     2.3.1.4  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS – GENERAL

To be eligible for a flight engineer licence, a person shall —

     (a)     be at least 18 years of age;

     (b)     hold a Class 3 medical certificate issued under Part 2.

     (c)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6; and

     (d)     comply with the requirements of this subsection that apply to the rating sought.

     2.3.1.5  ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT RATINGS

To add another aircraft class rating to a flight engineer licence, an applicant shall —

     (a)     pass the knowledge test and practical test that is appropriate to the class of aeroplane for which an additional rating is sought, or

     (b)     satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought.

     2.3.1.6  KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for a flight engineer licence shall pass a knowledge test on the following —

     (1)     the regulations that apply to a flight engineer.

     (2)     the theory of flight and aerodynamics.

     (3)     basic meteorology with respect to engine operations.

     (4)     centre of gravity computations.

     (b)     An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight engineer class rating shall pass a knowledge test for that aeroplane class on the following —

     (1)     aeroplane equipment;

     (2)     aeroplane systems;

     (3)     aeroplane loading;

     (4)     aeroplane procedures and engine operations with respect to limitations;

     (5)     normal operating procedures;

     (6)     emergency procedures.

     (c)     Before taking the knowledge tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection, an applicant for a flight engineer licence shall present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements of 2.3.1.7.

     (d)     An applicant may take the knowledge tests before acquiring the flight training required by 2.3.1.7.

     (e)     Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this subsection, an applicant for a flight engineer licence or rating shall have passed the knowledge tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection since the beginning of the 24^th calendar month before the month in which the practical test is taken.

     (f)     An applicant who within the period ending 24 calendar months after passing the knowledge test, is employed as a flight crewmember or mechanic by an Antigua & Barbuda air carrier or certificate holder need not comply with the time limit set in paragraph (e) of this subsection if the applicant —

     (1)     is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the practical test; and

     (2)     if employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial training, and, if appropriate, transition, upgrade, recurrent training; or

     (3)     if employed as an AMT, meets the recency of experience requirements of 5.6.1.4.

     (g)     An AOC holder may, when authorised by the Authority, provide as part of an approved training program a knowledge test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (b) of this subsection.

     2.3.1.7  AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     Except as otherwise specified herein, an applicant for a flight engineer licence shall obtain and log the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this subsection on an aeroplane on which a flight engineer is required by these Regulations.

     (b)     An applicant for a flight engineer licence with a class rating shall present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence of one of the following, including the practical experience with the aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this subsection —

     (1)     at least 3 years of practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine maintenance and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer;

     (2)     graduation from at least a 2-year specialised aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer;

     (3)     a degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering from a recognised college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 calendar months of practical experience in maintaining aircraft and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer;

     (4)     at least a commercial pilot licence with an instrument rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer;

     (5)     At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category aeroplane as PIC or SIC performing the functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC;

     (6)     At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer;

     (7)     Within the 90-day period before application, successful completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction.

     2.3.1.8  SKILL REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for a flight engineer licence with a class and type ratings shall pass a practical test on the duties of a flight engineer —

     (1)     in the class and type of aeroplane for which a rating is sought; and

     (2)     only on an aeroplane specified in 2.3.1.7(a) or an approved flight simulator replicating the class and type of such an aeroplane.

     (b)     An applicant shall —

     (1)     show satisfactory performance in preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pre-takeoff, and post-landing procedures;

     (2)     in flight, show satisfactory performance of the normal duties and procedures relating to the aeroplane, aeroplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and

     (3)     in flight, in an aeroplane simulator, or in an approved training device, show satisfactorily performance on emergency duties and procedures and recognise and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the aeroplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances.

     2.3.1.9  (RESERVED)

     2.3.1.10  VALIDATION OF FOREIGN FLIGHT ENGINEERS LICENCES AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a current flight engineer licence issued by another Contracting State may apply for a validation of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant holds a current and valid flight engineer licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1.

     (ii)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (iii)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence that he or she holds either a current medical certificate issued under Part 2 or a current medical certificate issued by the Contracting State that issued the applicant's licence.

     (A)     The Authority may allow the applicant to use his/her foreign medical certificate with the validation certificate provided that the medical certification requirements on which the foreign medical certificate was issued meet the requirements of Part 2, relevant to the licence held.

     (iv)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6. or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (v)     The application is supported by the relevant operator.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings, authorizations and the medical certificate with the state of licence issue prior to issuing the validation.

     (3)     The Authority will only validate ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the validation of a licence.

     (4)     The Authority may issue a validation certificate for a period not exceeding six months, provided the foreign licence, ratings or authorizations and the medical certificate remain valid.

     (5)     the Authority will place on the validation certificate issued under this Subsection the flight engineer's foreign licence number and country of issuance.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a) above, the applicant for a validation certificate shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be validated of —

     (i)     Air Law; and

     (ii)     Any other subject areas deemed necessary by the Authority.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.2.7 for details on additional requirements and exemptions to the training requirements of this subsection.

     2.3.1.11  CONVERSION OF FOREIGN FLIGHT ENGINEERS LICENCES AND RATINGS

     (a)     General.

     (1)     A person who holds a valid and current flight engineer licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a conversion of that licence provided that —

     (i)     The applicant presents to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g. logbook).

     (ii)     The applicant holds a Class 2 medical certificate issued under Part 2.

     (iii)     The application is supported by the relevant operator.

     (iv)     The applicant presents to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language as specified in 2.1.2.6. or shall demonstrate to the Authority the language proficiency skills as specified in 2.1.2.6.

     (2)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings, authorizations with the state of licence issue prior to the conversion of a licence.

     (3)     The Authority will only convert ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements in item (a) above, the applicant for a conversion shall meet the following requirements —

     (1)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be validated of —

     (i)     Air Law; and

     (ii)     Any other subject areas deemed necessary by the Authority.

     (2)     Complete a skill test for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be converted relevant to the privileges of the licence held.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 2.1.2.7 for details on additional requirements and exemptions to the training requirements of this subsection.

2.4     LICENSING: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS

     2.4.1  General

     2.4.1.1  APPLICABILITY

Subpart 2.4 prescribes the requirements for issuing the following licences, ratings, and inspection authorizations for —

     (a)     air traffic controllers;

     (b)     ATC facility rating;

     (c)     flight operations officers;(RESERVED)

     (d)     aviation maintenance technicians;

     2.4.2  Air Traffic Controllers

     2.4.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of student air traffic controller licences, air traffic controller licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

     2.4.2.2  REQUIRED LICENCES, RATING OR QUALIFICATION

A person shall not provide an air traffic controller service unless he or she —

     (a)     holds an air traffic controller licence issued to him or her under this Subpart;

     (b)     holds a current air traffic controller rating;

     (c)     maintains competency in accordance with criteria established by the Authority;

     (d)     holds a student air traffic controller licence issued under this subpart; and functions under the supervision of an appropriately rated air traffic controller; or

     (e)     is undergoing ab-initio departmental instruction from an air traffic controller who is specifically authorized to carry out instruction in an operational environment.

     2.4.2.3  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

     (a)     To be eligible for a student air traffic controller licence a person shall —

     (1)     be at least 21 years of age;

     (2)     hold a Class 3 medical certificate issued under Part 2;

     (3)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6; and

     (4)     completed an approved training course;

     (b)     To be eligible for an air traffic controller licence a person shall —

     (1)     be at least 21 years of age;

     (2)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6;

     (3)     meet the requirements of 2.4.2.4; and

     (4)     meet the requirements of at least one of the ratings set out in 2.4.2.6.

     2.4.2.4  KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for an air traffic controller licence shall have demonstrated knowledge appropriate to the holder of an air traffic controller licence in at least the following subjects —

     (1)     Air Law - Rules and regulations relevant to the air traffic controller;

     (2)     Air traffic control equipment – Principles, use and limitations of equipment used in air traffic control;

     (3)     General Knowledge - Principles of flight; principles of operation and functioning of aircraft, powerplants and systems; aircraft performances relevant to air traffic control operations;

     (4)     Human Performance - Human performance relevant to air traffic control including principles of threat and error management;

     (5)     Aeronautical meteorology; use and appreciation of meteorological documentation and information; origin and characteristics of weather phenomena affecting flight operations and safety; altimetry;

     (6)     Navigation - Principles of air navigation; principle, limitation and accuracy of navigation systems and visual aids; and

     (7)     Operational Procedures - Air traffic control, communication, radiotelephony and phraseology procedures (routine, non-routine and emergency); use of the relevant aeronautical documentation; safety practices associated with flight.

     2.4.2.5  EXPERIENCE

An applicant shall have completed an approved training course and not less than three months' of satisfactory service engaged in the actual control of air traffic under the supervision of an appropriately rated air traffic controller. The experience requirements specified for air traffic controller ratings in paragraph 2.4.2.6 (c) will be credited as part of the experience specified in this paragraph.

     2.4.2.6  AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER RATINGS

     (a)     Air traffic controller ratings shall comprise the following categories —

     (1)     Aerodrome control rating;

     (2)     Approach control procedural rating.

     (3)     Approach control surveillance rating.

     (4)     Area control procedural rating.

     (5)     Area control surveillance rating.

     2.4.2.7  REQUIREMENTS FOR AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER RATINGS

An applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in at least the following subjects in so far as they affect the area of responsibility —

     (a)     Knowledge.

An applicant for an air traffic controller rating shall receive knowledge instruction through an approved training course on the knowledge areas appropriate to the holder of an air traffic controller rating on the subjects as specified below for each rating sought —

     (1)     Aerodrome control rating —

     (i)     Aerodrome layout. physical characteristics and visual aids.

     (ii)     Airspace structure.

     (iii)     Applicable rules, procedures and source of information.

     (iv)     Air navigation facilities.

     (v)     Air traffic control equipment and its use.

     (vi)     Terrain and prominent landmarks.

     (vii)     Characteristics of air traffic.

     (viii)     Weather phenomena.

     (ix)     Emergency and search and rescue plans.

     (2)     Approach control procedural and area control procedural ratings —

     (i)     Airspace structure;

     (ii)     Applicable rules, procedures and source of information.

     (iii)     Air navigation facilities.

     (iv)     Air traffic control equipment and its use.

     (v)     Terrain and prominent landmarks.

     (vi)     Characteristics of air traffic and traffic flow.

     (vii)     Weather phenomena.

     (viii)     Emergency and search and rescue plans.

     (3)     Approach control and area control surveillance ratings —

     (i)     Principles, use and limitations of applicable ATS surveillance systems and associated equipment; and

     (ii)     Procedures for the provision of ATS surveillance service, as appropriate, including procedures to ensure appropriate terrain clearance.

     (b)     Experience. The applicant for an air traffic controller licence shall have —

     (1)     Satisfactorily completed an approved training course.

     (2)     Provided, satisfactorily, under the supervision of an appropriately rated air traffic controller —

     (i)     Aerodrome control rating: an aerodrome control service, for a period of not less than 90 hours or one month, whichever is greater, at the unit for which the rating is sought.

     (ii)     Approach, control procedural, approach control surveillance, area control procedural or area control surveillance rating: the control service for which the rating is sought, for a period of not less than 180 hours or 3 months, whichever is greater, at the unit for which the rating is sought.

     (3)     The experience specified under (c)(2) shall have been completed within the 6-month period immediately preceding application.

     (4)     When the applicant already holds an air traffic controller rating in another category or the same rating in another unit, the Authority shall determine whether the experience requirements of (c)(1)(2) may be reduced and to what extent.

     (c)     Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated, at a level appropriate to the privileges being granted, the skill, judgement and performance required to provide a safe, orderly and expeditious control service.

     (d)     Concurrent issuance of 2 air traffic controller ratings. When 2 air traffic controller ratings are sought concurrently, the Authority shall determine the applicable requirements on the basis of the requirements for each rating. These requirements shall not be less than the those of the higher rating.

     2.4.2.8  PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS.

     (1)     Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of the holder of an air traffic controller licence with the following applicable rating shall be —

     (i)     Aerodrome control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of aerodrome control service for the aerodrome for which the licence holder is rated.

     (ii)     Approach control procedural rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the licence holder is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach control service.

     (iii)     Approach control surveillance rating: to provide or supervise the provision of approach control service with the use of applicable ATS surveillance systems for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the licence holder is rated within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach control service.

     (iv)     Area control procedural rating: to provide or supervise the provision of area control service within the control area or portion thereof, for which the licence holder is rated; and

     (v)     Area control surveillance rating: to provide or supervise the provision of area control service with the use with the use of applicable ATS surveillance systems within the control area or portion of the control area, for which the licence holder is rated.

     (2)     Before exercising the privileges indicated in (f)(1), the licence holder shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information.

     (3)     The holder of an air traffic controller licence and ratings(s) shall not provide supervise the provision of air traffic control service unless such holder has received proper authorization from the management of the applicable ATC unit. Such supervision shall be limited to the supervision of air traffic controllers who already hold —

     (i)     An air traffic controller rating in the same category at that ATC unit; or

     (ii)     An air traffic controller rating in another category at that ATC unit or the same rating for another ATC unit, and is undergoing operational training leading to the issue of a rating in that category at that ATC unit.

     (4)     The holder of an air traffic controller licence shall not carry out ab-initio instruction or instruct/supervise a non-rated controller in an operational environment unless such holder has received proper authorization from the Authority.

Note.—The supervision of already-rated controllers as in (3) above requires authorization from the management of the applicable ATC unit, while ab-initio instruction/supervision of non-rated controllers requires authorization from the Authority.

     2.4.2.9.  VALIDITY OF RATINGS

A rating shall become invalid when an air traffic controller has ceased to exercise the privileges of the rating for a period determined by the Authority. That period shall not exceed 6 months. A rating shall remain invalid until the controller's ability to exercise the privileges of the rating has been re-established.

     2.4.2.10  REST AND DUTY LIMITATIONS

     (a)     Except where the Authority determines that an emergency air traffic situation has arisen, an Air Traffic Controller shall have a minimum of 24 consecutive hours free from duty within each 7 consecutive days of duty.

     (b)     Except where the Authority determines that an emergency air traffic situation has arisen, an Air Traffic Controller shall not work or be required to work for more than 12 consecutive hours.

     (c)     An Air Traffic Controller shall be required to take a rest period of at least 8 consecutive hours before each duty period.

     (d)     Notwithstanding (c) above, where the duty period is more than 10 consecutive hours the rest period of the Air Traffic Controller shall be no less than the preceding duty period.

     2.4.2.11  AERODROME FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE (AFIS) OFFICERS

     (a)     A person shall not provide an Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) unless he or she has been authorized by the Authority.

     (b)     To be eligible for authorization to provide AFIS a person shall —

     (1)     be at least 18 years of age;

     (2)     hold a Class 3 medical certificate issued under Part 2;

     (3)     meet the English language proficiency requirements of 2.1.2.6; and

     (4)     meet the requirements of 2.4.2.9.

     2.4.2.12  REQUIREMENTS FOR AUTHORIZATION TO PROVIDE AFIS

     (a)     Knowledge:

An applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to AFIS authorization in at least the following subjects —

     (1)     Rules of the Air and air traffic procedures pertinent to aerodrome operations;

     (2)     Procedures and practices pertaining to Flight Information Service (FIS) and alerting service;

     (3)     Terms used in the aeronautical mobile service to include words and phrases and the phonetic alphabet;

     (4)     Communication codes and abbreviations used;

     (5)     Radiotelephony phraseologies and operating procedures;

     (6)     General air traffic services and airspace organization within the State;

     (7)     Local aerodrome rules;

     (8)     Characteristics of local traffic;

     (9)     Local terrain and prominent landmarks;

     (10)     Local air navigation facilities;

     (11)     Procedures for coordination between the AFIS unit and its associated ATC unit(s);

     (12)     Pertinent data regarding meteorological reports and effect of significant weather characteristics; and

     (13)     Local procedures for alerting of emergency services.

     (b)     Experience

The applicant shall have satisfactorily —

     (1)     Completed an approved Aerodrome Control course; and

     (2)     Provided Aerodrome Flight Information Service at that AFIS unit under the supervision of an authorized AFIS officer or an appropriately rated air traffic controller for not less than 2 months.

     (c)     Skill

The applicant shall have demonstrated competency in —

     (1)     The manipulation and operation of typical transmit/receiver equipment and controls, including ancillary facilities and radio direction-finding apparatus in use;

     (2)     The visual inspection and daily operational check of the radio equipment in use;

     (3)     The transmission of radiotelephony messages, including correct microphone technique, enunciation and speech quality; and

     (4)     The reception of telephony messages and the ability to relay messages correctly.

     2.4.3     (RESERVED)

     2.4.4     Aviation Maintenance Technicians

Note: The terms “licenced Engineer,” “aviation maintenance engineer” or “aircraft maintenance engineer (AME)”may be used instead of “Aviation Maintenance Technician”

     2.4.4.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of an AMT licence and associated ratings which are issued and extended within the defined Categories given in 2.4.4.3.

     (b)     There are two parts to each Category —

     (1)     licence Without Type Rating (LWTR). This licence does not confer any certification responsibilities or privileges. It is, however, a prerequisite for the grant of the relevant Type Ratings and Certification Authorization within an AMO;

     (2)     Type Ratings. Type Ratings confer on the holder of a LWTR the privileges and certification responsibilities defined in 2.4.4.7.

     2.4.4.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

     (a)     An applicant for the grant or extension of a licence shall —

     (1)     submit an application which is acceptable in content and presentation;

     (2)     provide evidence of acceptable experience required by IS 2.4.4.5 and any training course requirements relevant to the application;

     (3)     comply with the knowledge and competency requirements prescribed for the rating sought;

     (4)     be able to read, write, interpret technical reports and carry out technical discussions in the English language;

     (5)     pass all of the prescribed tests for the rating sought;

     (6)     pay the appropriate fee.

     (b)     An applicant for the conversion of a Licence based on a licence or certificate not issued by Saint Lucia shall —

     (1)     submit an application which is acceptable in content in type and form;

     (2)     enclose original documents or acceptable certified copies of the licences and certificates supporting the application;

     (3)     be able to read, write, interpret technical reports and carry out technical discussions in the English language;

     (4)     pay the appropriate fee.

1.  

   Implementing Standard: See IS 2.4.4.2 for further requirements and procedures for the acceptance of foreign licences and certificates.

     2.4.4.3  RATINGS

Categories and Ratings defined in IS: 2.4.4.3 are issued under this subpart

     2.4.4.4  AIRCRAFT RATING: KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for an AMT licence or rating shall, after meeting the applicable experience requirements of 2.4.4.5, pass the applicable knowledge tests covering the construction and maintenance of aircraft appropriate to the category and rating sought, the regulations and the provisions of the applicable Parts.

     (b)     The examination for the grant of a Licence will normally be in two parts: (i) a written examination, comprising a multi-choice question paper and an essay question paper , and (ii) an oral examination. All papers of the written examination must be taken at one sitting. The oral examination can only be taken after the written examination has been passed and normally must be taken within 3 months of the written examination.

     (c)     The applicant shall pass each section of the written test before completing any necessary oral examination.

Implementing Standard; See IS 2.4.4.4 for details of the examinations, the examination syllabus and procedures following partial passes.

     2.4.4.5  EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

Applications for the grant or extension of an AMT Licence in any category must demonstrate compliance with the experience requirements detailed in IS:2.4.4.5.

     2.4.4.6  SKILL REQUIREMENTS

Each applicant for an AMT licence or rating must pass an oral and a practical test on the rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that rating.

     2.4.4.7  PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

     (a)     A licenced AMT may perform or supervise the maintenance, or modification of, or after inspection, approve for return to service, any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof, for which he or she has a valid appropriately type rated licence.

     (b)     A licenced AMT in Category 'A' with the appropriate type rating may, after he or she has performed the 100 hours or annual inspection required by Part 8 of these Regulations on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, approve it for return to service.

     (c)     A licenced AMT in Category 'C' with the appropriate type rating may, after he or she has performed the 100 hours or annual inspection required by Part 8 of these Regulations on a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or appliance, approve for return to service.

     (d)     See IS 2.4.4.7.

     (e)     A licenced AMT in any Category shall not —

     (1)     approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof which is operated on an AOC issued in accordance with Part 9 of these Regulations unless he or she is approved by the AMO responsible for the maintenance and listed in the list of certifying staff;

     (2)     exercise the privileges of the licence unless the AMT understands the current instructions for continued airworthiness and the maintenance instructions for the specific operation concerned;

     (3)     perform or supervise —

     (i)     a major repair or major modification of a propeller; or

     (ii)     any repair or alteration of instruments;

     (4)     approve for return to service —

     (i)     any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof after completion of a major alteration or major repair; or

     (ii)     any instrument after completion of any repair or alteration;

     2.4.4.8  VALIDATION OF AMT LICENCES

     (a)     General requirements for validation.

     (1)     A person who holds a current and valid AMT licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, may apply for a validation of such licence for use on aircraft registered in Saint Lucia.

     (2)     The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the personal record.

     (3)     The applicant for the validation certificate shall demonstrate to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language in accordance with this Part.

     (4)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings authorizations with the state of licence issue prior to issuing the validation.

     (5)     The Authority will only validate ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the validation of a licence

     (6)     The Authority may issue a validation certificate for a period to be determined by the Authority provided the foreign licence, ratings or authorizations remain valid. A validation certificate so granted shall not exceed 6 months.

     (b)     The applicant for the validation certificate shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be validated of —

     (1)     Regulations;

     (2)     Applicable Airworthiness requirements governing certification and continuing airworthiness; and

     (3)     Approved maintenance organisations and procedures.

     (c)     The applicant for the validation certificate to take an oral examination for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant to the privileges of the licence held; and

     (d)     Have a minimum of 4 years AMT experience.

     2.4.4.9  CONVERSION OF AMT LICENCES

     (a)     General requirements for conversion —

     (1)     A person who holds a current and valid AMT licence issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, may apply for conversion of such licence for use on aircraft registered in Saint Lucia provided the following requirements are met.

     (2)     The applicant for the conversion shall present to the Authority the foreign licence and evidence of the experience required by presenting the personal record.

     (3)     The applicant for the conversion shall demonstrate to the Authority evidence of proficiency in the English Language in accordance with this Part.

     (4)     Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the licence to be converted of —

     (i)     Regulations;

     (ii)     Applicable Airworthiness requirements governing certification and continuing airworthiness;

     (iii)     Approved maintenance organisations and procedures; and

     (iv)     Human Performance;

     (b)     The applicant for the licence conversion shall satisfactorily complete an oral examination for the relevant licence and ratings that he or she wants to be converted relevant to the privileges of the licence held; and

     (c)     Have a minimum of four years AMT experience —

     (1)     The Authority will verify the authenticity of the licence, ratings authorizations with the state of licence issue prior to issuing the converted licence.

     (2)     The Authority will only convert ratings or authorizations on the foreign licence together with the conversion of a licence.

     2.4.4.10  AMT LICENCE RENEWAL

It is the responsibility of the Licence holder to ensure that his or her Licence remains valid.

     (a)     an applicant for the renewal of a licence shall —

     (1)     submit an application for renewal which is acceptable in form and content;

     (2)     provide evidence of having been engaged on the maintenance of operating aircraft for periods of at least 6 months during the 12 months before application for renewal. Where a Licence holder is unable to show such experience but has been actively involved for the same periods in matters concerned with aircraft maintenance (e.g. as a quality engineer or quality manager, an aeronautical engineering instructor or as a flight engineer) consideration will be given to renewing the Licence;

     (3)     pay the appropriate fee.

     (b)     Expired Licences.

     (1)     a Licence which has lapsed for less than 2 years may be considered for renewal without examination of the holder provided that the requirements of (a) and the implementing standard are met;

     (2)     a Licence which has lapsed for more than 2 years may not be renewed without examination of the holder. The amount of recent experience required may depend on the length of time the since the Licence lapsed and the nature of employment;

     2.4.5     Certification Authorizations

     2.4.5.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of certification authorizations, and the conditions under which these authorizations are necessary.

     2.4.5.2  ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

An AMO shall issue a Certification Authorization to Certifying Staff in accordance with procedures approved by the Authority. Such procedures shall contain at least the following eligibility requirements —

     (1)     the applicant must hold a valid AMT LWTR issued by the Authority or an appropriate validation of a foreign licence in the appropriate category;

     (2)     the applicant must have completed an appropriate type course approved by the Authority or hold the appropriate Type Rating;

     (3)     the applicant must pass an examination on the AMO procedures;

     (4)     the applicant must submit to the AMO, a satisfactory record of experience as specified in 2.4.4.5.(e).

     2.4.6     (RESERVED)

2.5     MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION

     2.5.1     General

     2.5.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing and reissuing Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 medical certificates.

     2.5.1.2  MEDICAL FITNESS

     (a)     An applicant for a licence shall, when applicable, hold a medical certificate issued in accordance with this Part.

     (b)     The flight crewmembers or air traffic controllers shall not exercise the privileges of their licence unless they hold a current medical certificate appropriate to the licence.

     (c)     The period of validity of a medical certificate shall begin on the day the medical examination is performed. The duration of the period of validity shall be in accordance with the provisions of 2.5.2.4

     (d)     The period of validity of a medical certificate may be extended, at the discretion of the Authority up to 45 days.

     2.5.1.3  AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINERS

     (a)     Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the Authority will designate and authorise qualified and licenced physicians in the practice of medicine, to be authorised as an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) and conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for the issue, renewal or re-issue of the licences or ratings specified in this Part;

     (b)     AMEs shall have had training in Basic and Advanced aviation medicine. Before designation, medical examiners shall demonstrate adequate competency in aviation medicine;

     (c)     AMEs shall receive refresher training every three years;

     (d)     AMEs shall have practical knowledge and experience of the conditions in which the holders of licences and ratings carry out their duties;

Note: Examples of practical knowledge and experience are flight experience, simulator experience, on-site observation or any other hands-on experience deemed by the Authority to meet this requirement.

     (e)     The authorization of an AME is valid for 3 years. Re-authorization will be at the discretion of the Authority

     (f)     Having completed the medical examination of an applicant in accordance with this Section, the AME shall submit a signed report to the Authority detailing the results of the examination;

     (g)     Medical confidentiality shall be respected at all times;

     (h)     All medical reports and records shall be securely held with accessibility restricted to authorized personnel;

     (i)     If the medical examination is carried out by a constituted group of AMEs, the head of the group will be appointed by the Authority, who will be responsible for coordinating the results of the examination and signing the report;

     (j)     An AME shall report to the Authority any individual case where, in the examiner's judgement, an applicant's failure to meet any requirement could jeopardise flight safety;

     (k)     The Authority will use the services of physicians experienced in the practice of aviation medicine, when it is necessary to evaluate reports submitted to the Authority by medical examiners;

     (l)     The Authority retains the right to reconsider any action of an AME.

     2.5.1.4  AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS

     (a)     Applicants for licences or ratings for which medical fitness is prescribed shall sign and furnish to the AME a declaration stating whether they have previously undergone such an examination and, if so, with what result;

     (b)     Each applicant for a medical certificate shall provide the AME with a personally certified statement of medical facts concerning personal, familial and hereditary history;

     (c)     Each applicant for a medical certificate shall produce proof of identification;

     (d)     Any false declaration to an AME made by an applicant for a licence or rating shall be reported to the Authority for such action as may be considered appropriate.

     2.5.1.5  SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

     (a)     If the medical requirements prescribed in Part 2 for a particular licence are not met, the appropriate medical certificate will not be issued, renewed or re-issued unless the following conditions are fulfilled —

     (1)     Accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight safety;

     (2)     Relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions have been given due consideration; and

     (3)     The licence is endorsed by the Authority with any special limitation or limitations when the safe performance of the licence holder's duties is dependent on compliance with such limitation or limitations.

     (b)     The AME shall report to the Authority any individual case where, in the AME's judgement, an applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence being applied for, or held, is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.

     2.5.1.6  DECREASE OF MEDICAL FITNESS

Holders of licences provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and related ratings at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these privileges

     2.5.1.7  USE OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES

     (a)     Holders of licences provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and related ratings while under the influence of any psychoactive substance which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these privileges.

     (b)     Holders of licences provided for in this Part shall not engage in any problematic use of substances.

     2.5.2     Medical Certification Procedures

     2.5.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes the medical certification procedures required for the issuance of all medical certificates.

     2.5.2.2  ISSUANCE OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

     (a)     The Authority will issue the applicable medical certificate to any person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this Subpart, based on medical examination and evaluation of the applicant's history and condition.

     (b)     A person to be issued a medical certificate shall undergo a medical examination based on the physical and mental standards contained in this Subpart.

     (c)     A person who does not meet the medical standards of this Subpart shall not be granted a medical certificate unless that person meets the requirements of 2.5.2.5.

     2.5.2.3  MEDICAL CERTIFICATE REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     To conduct the following operations, except for a person employed by the Authority, a person shall —

     (1)     hold a Class 1 medical certificate when exercising the privileges of a commercial or an airline transport pilot licence;

     (2)     hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate when exercising the privileges of a student, private pilot or flight engineer licence; or hold at least a Class 3 medical certificate when exercising the privileges of an air traffic controller licence.

     2.5.2.4  DURATION OF A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

The duration of a Medical Certificate shall be in accordance with IS 2.5.2.4

     2.5.2.5  SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

If the medical requirements prescribed in this Part for a particular licence are not met, the appropriate medical certificate will not be issued, renewed or re-issued unless the following conditions are fulfilled —

     (a)     Accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight safety;

     (b)     Relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions have been given due consideration; and

     (c)     The licence is endorsed by the Authority with any special limitation or limitations when the safe performance of the licence holder's duties is dependent on compliance with such limitation.

     2.5.2.6  RENEWAL OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

The requirements for the renewal of a medical assessment are the same as those for the initial assessment except where otherwise specifically stated.

     2.5.2.7  DENIAL OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

     (a)     A applicant who is denied a medical certificate by an AME may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply in writing and in duplicate to the Authority for reconsideration of that denial. If the applicant does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial, the Authority will consider that he or she has withdrawn the application for a medical certificate.

     (b)     The denial of a medical certificate —

     (1)     by an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the Authority; and

     (2)     by the Authority is considered to be a denial by the Authority.

     2.5.3     Physical and Mental Standards - All Medical Certificates

     2.5.3.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes the physical medical standards required for all medical certificates.

     2.5.3.2  GENERAL MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for a Medical Certificate issued in accordance with this Part, shall undergo a medical examination based on the following requirements —

     (1)     Physical and mental;

     (2)     Visual and colour perception; and

     (3)     Hearing.

     2.5.3.3  PHYSICAL AND MENTAL REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An applicant for any class of Medical Assessment shall be required to be free from —

     (1)     Any abnormality, congenital or acquired; or

     (2)     Any active, latent, acute or chronic disability; or

     (3)     Any wound, injury or sequela from operation; or

     (4)     Any effect or side-effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic medication taken; such as would entail a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to interfere with the safe operation of an aircraft or with the safe performance of duties.

     2.5.3.4  VISUAL ACUITY TEST REQUIREMENTS

Visual acuity tests shall be conducted in accordance with IS 2.5.3.4.

     2.5.3.5  HEARING TEST REQUIREMENTS

Hearing test requirements shall be in accordance with IS 2.5.3.5.

     2.5.3.6  COLOUR PERCEPTION REQUIREMENTS

Colour perception requirements shall be in accordance with IS 2.5.3.5.

     2.5.4     Class 1 Medical Certificates

     2.5.4.1  APPLICABILITY

Applicants shall be assessed in accordance with IS 2.5.4.1

     2.5.5     Class 2 Medical Certificates

     2.5.5.1  APPLICABILITY

Applicants shall be assessed in accordance with IS 2.5.5.1

     2.5.6     Class 3 Medical Certificates

     2.5.6.1  APPLICABILITY

Applicants shall be assessed in accordance with IS 2.5.6.1

CONTENTS

PART 3

AVIATION TRAINING ORGANISATIONS

3.1     GENERAL

     3.1.1     General

     3.1.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Part prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering Aviation Training Organisations (ATO).

     3.1.1.2  DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     3.1.1.3  ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in Part 3 —

     (1)     ATO – Aviation Training Organisation

     (2)     AFM – Aircraft Flight Manual

     (3)     AMT – Aviation Maintenance Technician (Part 2)

     (4)     IFR – Instrument Flight Rules

     (5)     NOTAM – Notice to Airmen.

     3.1.2     Certificate Requirements

     3.1.2.1  CERTIFICATE REQUIRED

     (a)     A person shall not operate an ATO without, or in violation of, an ATO certificate and training specifications issued under this Part.

     (b)     Except for a holder of an AOC training its own flight crews, A person shall not conduct training, testing, or checking in advanced flight training devices or flight simulators without, or in violation of, the certificate and training specifications required by this Part.

     (c)     The Authority shall issue an ATO certificate and training specifications to an applicant who meets the requirements of this Part.

     3.1.2.2  APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT

     (a)     An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specifications shall apply at least 120 calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training.

     (b)     An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specification shall provide to the Authority that information shown in IS: 3.1.2.2.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.1.2.2 for certificate information needed by the Authority.

     (c)     An applicant for an ATO certificate shall ensure that the facilities and equipment described in its application are —

     (1)     available for inspection and evaluation prior to approval; and

     (2)     in place and operational at the location of the proposed ATO prior to issuance of a certificate under this Subpart.

     (d)     The Authority shall issue to an applicant who meets the requirements and is approved by the Authority —

     (1)     an ATO certificate containing all business names included on the application under which the certificate holder may conduct operations and the address of each business office used by the certificate holder; and

     (2)     training specifications, issued by the Authority to the certificate holder, containing —

     (i)     authorization for the ATO to function as a Level 1 ATO or Level 2 ATO;

     (ii)     the type of training authorised, including approved courses;

     (iii)     the category, class, and type of aircraft that may be used for training, testing, and checking;

     (iv)     for each flight simulator or flight training device, the make, model, and series of aeroplane or the set of aeroplanes being simulated and the qualification level assigned, or the make, model, and series of rotorcraft, or set of rotorcraft being simulated and the qualification level assigned;

     (v)     for each flight simulator and flight training device subject to qualification evaluation by the Authority, the identification number assigned by the Authority;

     (vi)     the name and address of each satellite ATO, and the approved courses offered at each satellite ATO;

     (vii)     authorised deviations or waivers from this Subpart; and

     (viii)     any other items the Authority may require or allow.

     (e)     The Authority may deny, suspend, revoke, or terminate an organisation's ATO certificate under this Subpart if the Authority finds that the organisation —

     (1)     held an ATO certificate that was revoked, suspended, or terminated within the previous 5 years; or

     (2)     employs or proposes to employ a person who —

     (i)     was previously employed in a management or supervisory position by another organisation whose ATO certificate was revoked, suspended, or terminated within the previous 5 years;

     (ii)     exercised control over another organisation whose certificate has been revoked, suspended, or terminated within the last 5 years; and

     (iii)     contributed materially to the revocation, suspension, or termination of that ATO certificate and who will be employed in a management or supervisory position, or who will be in control of or have a substantial ownership interest in the first mentioned organisation.

     (3)     Has provided incomplete, inaccurate, fraudulent, or false information for an ATO certificate.

     (f)     At any time, the Authority may amend an ATO certificate —

     (1)     on the Authority's own initiative, under applicable Saint Lucia legislation; or

     (2)     on timely application by the certificate holder.

     (g)     An ATO shall file an application to amend an ATO certificate at least 60 calendar days prior to the applicant's proposed effective amendment date unless a different filing period is approved by the Authority.

     (h)     The Authority may issue an ATO certificate to an applicant —

     (1)     for an ATO inside or outside of Saint Lucia; and

     (2)     whose business office or primary location, or both are located inside or outside Saint Lucia.

     3.1.2.3  CURRICULUM AND PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An ATO shall adhere to its approved curriculum.

     (b)     An ATO shall not change its approved curriculum unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance.

     (c)     A Level 2 ATO shall show that —

     (1)     for each proposed curriculum, the Level 2 ATO has, and shall maintain, a sufficient number of instructors who are qualified in accordance with section 3.2.4 to perform the duties to which they are assigned.

     (2)     a Level 1 ATO shall meet the personnel requirements shown in Section 3.2.4.

     (3)     an ATO with AMT courses shall meet the personnel requirements shown in 3.4.2.5.

     (d)     A Level 2 ATO shall have designated, and shall maintain, a sufficient number of approved evaluators to provide required checks and tests to graduation candidates within 7 calendar days of training completion for any curriculum leading to airman licences or ratings, or both.

     (e)     A Level 2 ATO shall maintain, a sufficient number of management personnel who are qualified and competent to perform required duties.

     (f)     A management representative, and all personnel who are designated by the Level 2 ATO to conduct and direct student training, shall be able to understand, read, write, and fluently speak the English language.

     (g)     The persons listed in this subsection may serve in more than one position for an ATO, provided that person is qualified for each position.

     3.1.2.4  CONTENTS OF AN ATO CERTIFICATE

     (a)     An ATO certificate shall consist of two documents —

     (1)     a certificate for public display signed by the Authority, and

     (2)     training specifications containing the terms, conditions, and authorizations applicable to the ATO certificate.

     (b)     An ATO certificate shall contain —

     (1)     the name and location (main place of business)     of the ATO;

     (2)     the date of issue and period of validity for each page issued;

     (3)     the authorised locations of operations; and

     (4)     training specifications for the following categories, as applicable —

     (i)     pilot training.

     (ii)     other crewman training.

     (iii)     other airman training.

     (iv)     AMT training.

     (v)     other training.

     (5)     other authorizations, approvals and limitations issued by the Authority in accordance with the standards which are applicable to the training conducted by the ATO.

     3.1.2.5  DURATION OF CERTIFICATE

     (a)     Except as shown in paragraph (c), an ATO expires, unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked —

     (1)     twelve calendar months after the certificate was issued;

     (2)     except as provided in paragraph (b), on the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs;

     (3)     on the date of any significant change in the school's facilities occurs; or

     (4)     on notice by the Authority that the school has failed for more than 60 days to maintain the required facilities, aircraft, or personnel.

     (b)     A change in the ownership of an ATO does not terminate the ATO certificate issued for that ATO if, within 30 days —

     (1)     the certificate holder makes application for an appropriate amendment to the certificate; and

     (2)     no significant change in the facilities, operating personnel, or approved training courses is involved.

     (c)     If the Authority suspends, revokes, or terminates an ATO certificate issued pursuant to this Part, the holder of that certificate shall return the certificate to the Authority within 5 working days after being notified that the certificate is suspended, revoked, or terminated.

     3.1.2.6  DEVIATIONS OR WAIVERS

     (a)     The Authority may issue deviations or waivers from any of the requirements of this Part.

     (b)     An ATO requesting a deviation or waiver under this section shall provide the Authority with information acceptable to the Authority that shows —

     (1)     justification for the deviation or waiver; and

     (2)     that the deviation or waiver will not adversely affect the quality of instruction or evaluation.

     3.1.2.7  ADVERTISING LIMITATIONS

     (a)     No person shall advertise as an ATO until an ATO certificate has been issued to that facility by the Authority.

     (b)     No ATO may make any statement, either in writing or orally, about itself that is false or is designed to mislead any person.

     (c)     Whenever the advertising of an ATO indicates that it is approved, the advertisement must clearly state the approved training organisation's certificate number.

     3.1.3     Location and Facilities

     3.1.3.1  FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, AND MATERIAL

     (a)     An ATO shall provide facilities, equipment, and material equal to the standards currently required for the issue of the certificate and rating that it holds.

     (b)     An ATO shall not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment, or material that have been approved for a particular curriculum, unless that change is approved by the Authority in advance.

     (c)     An ATO with approved AMT courses shall not make any change in the ATO's location unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance. If the certificate holder desires to change the location of the ATO, the certificate holder shall notify the Authority, in writing, at least 30 days before the date of the relocation. The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the ATO may operate while it is changing its location or housing facilities. If the certificate holder changes the location of the ATO without notification, the certificate shall be revoked.

     (d)     An ATO shall establish and maintain a principal business office that is physically located at the address shown on its certificate.

     (e)     The principal business office of an ATO shall not be shared with, or used by, another ATO.

     (f)     An ATO shall ensure that —

     (1)     each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional purposes is heated, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes; and

     (2)     the facilities used for instruction are not routinely subject to significant distractions caused by flight operations and maintenance operations at the airport.

     (g)     An ATO shall maintain the records required by this Part in facilities adequate for that purpose.

     (h)     An ATO with approved AMT courses shall have and maintain the following instructional equipment as is appropriate to the rating sought —

     (1)     various kinds of airframe structures, airframe systems and components, powerplants, and powerplant systems and components (including propellers), of a quantity and type suitable to complete the practical projects required by its approved curricula;

     (2)     at least one aircraft of a type acceptable to the Authority;

     (3)     the equipment required by paragraph (h) need not be in an airworthy condition, and if damaged prior to use by the ATO, shall have been repaired enough for complete assembly.

     (i)     An ATO with an AMT rating shall have airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances, and components thereof, to be used for instruction and from which students will gain practical working experience, and shall insure that the airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances, and components thereof be sufficiently diversified as to show the different methods of construction, assembly, inspection, and operation when installed in an aircraft for use.

     (j)     An ATO with an AMT rating shall ensure that it maintains a sufficient number of units of the material described in paragraph (h)(3)     so that no more than 8 students will work on any one unit at one time.

     (k)     An ATO with an AMT rating using an aircraft for instructional purposes that does not have retractable landing gear and wing flaps, shall provide training aids, or operational mock-ups of the retractable landing gear and wing flaps which are acceptable to the Authority.

     (l)     An ATO with an AMT rating, seeking an additional AMT rating, shall have at least the facilities, equipment, and materials appropriate to the rating sought.

     (m)     An ATO with an AMT rating shall maintain, on the premises and under the full control of the ATO, an adequate supply of material, special tools, and shop equipment used in constructing and maintaining aircraft as is appropriate to the approved curriculum of the ATO, in order to assure that each student will be properly instructed.

     (n)     An ATO with an AMT rating shall insure that the special tools and shop equipment required by paragraph (h) be in satisfactory working condition for instructional and practice purposes.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.1.3.1 for specific requirements for facilities for AMT courses.

     3.1.3.2  FLIGHT TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, AND COURSEWARE

     (a)     A Level 2 ATO shall have available exclusively, for adequate periods of time and at a location approved by the Authority, adequate flight training equipment and courseware, including at least one flight simulator or advanced flight training device.

     (b)     An ATO that plans to conduct pilot flight training shall show that it has continuous use of a briefing area located at each airport at which training flights originate that is —

     (1)     adequate to shelter students waiting to engage in their training flights;

     (2)     arranged and equipped for the conduct of pilot briefings; and

     (3)     for an ATO with an instrument rating course or commercial pilot course, it is equipped with adequate communication to sources of weather and flight planning information.

     3.1.3.3  SATELLITE ATOS

     (a)     An ATO may conduct training in accordance with a training program approved by the Authority at a satellite ATO if —

     (1)     the facilities, equipment, personnel, and course content of the satellite ATO meet the applicable requirements;

     (2)     the instructors and evaluators at the satellite ATO are under the direct supervision of management personnel of the principal ATO;

     (3)     the certificate holder notifies the Authority in writing that a particular satellite ATO is to begin operations at least 60 days prior to proposed commencement of operations at that satellite ATO; and

     (4)     the certificate holder's training specifications reflect the name and address of the satellite ATO and the approved courses offered at the satellite ATO.

     (b)     The Authority will issue training specifications which prescribe the operations required and authorised at each satellite ATO.

     3.1.3.4  CHANGES REQUIRING NOTICE TO THE AUTHORITY

     (a)     An ATO shall notify the Authority within 30 days of any of the following changes —

     (1)     the accountable manager;

     (2)     the instructional and evaluation staff;

     (3)     the housing, training facilities and equipment, procedures, curricula, and work scope that could affect the approval.

     (b)     The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which an ATO may operate during such changes unless the Authority determines that the approval should be suspended.

     3.1.3.5  INSPECTION

     (a)     The Authority may, at any time, inspect an ATO on the ATO's premises to determine the ATO's compliance with this Part.

     (b)     Inspections pursuant to paragraph (a)     will normally be repeated on a 12 month basis, which may be extended to a 24 month basis if, in the opinion of the Authority, the holder continues to meet the requirements under which it was originally certificated.

     (c)     After an inspection pursuant to paragraph (a) is made, the certificate holder will be notified, in writing, of any deficiencies found during the inspection.

     3.1.4     Administrative

     3.1.4.1  RECORD KEEPING

     (a)     An ATO shall maintain a record for each trainee that contains —

     (1)     the name of the trainee;

     (2)     a copy of the trainee's licence, if any, and medical certificate, if required;

     (3)     the name of the course and the make and model of flight training equipment used, if applicable;

     (4)     the trainee's prerequisite experience and course time completed;

     (5)     the date the student graduated, terminated training, or transferred to another school;

     (6)     the trainee's performance on each lesson and the name of the instructor providing instruction;

     (7)     a current progress record for each trainee showing the practical projects or laboratory work completed or to be completed for each subject;

     (8)     the date and result of each knowledge test and end of course practical test and the name of the evaluator conducting the test(s); and

     (9)     the number of hours of additional training that was accomplished after any unsatisfactory practical test.

     (b)     The Authority shall not consider a student's logbook as sufficient for the records required by paragraph (a).

     (c)     An ATO shall maintain a record for each instructor or evaluator designated to instruct a course approved in accordance with this Part that indicates that the instructor or evaluator has complied with the applicable requirements of this Part.

     (d)     An ATO shall—

     (1)     maintain the records required by paragraph (a) for at least 2 years following the completion of training, testing or checking;

     (2)     maintain the qualification records required by paragraph (c) while the instructor or evaluator is in the employ of the certificate holder and for 2 years thereafter; and

     (3)     maintain the recurrent demonstration of proficiency records required by paragraph (c) for at least 2 years.

     (e)     An ATO shall provide the records required by this section to the Authority on request, within a reasonable time, and shall store and maintain the records required by —

     (1)     Paragraph (b) at the ATO, or satellite ATO where the training, testing, or checking, if appropriate, occurred, or at another location acceptable to the authority; and

     (2)     paragraph (c) at the ATO or satellite ATO where the instructor or evaluator is primarily employed, or at another location acceptable to the authority.

     (f)     An ATO shall provide to a trainee, on request and at a reasonable time, a copy of his or her training records.

     (g)     an ATO shall keep a current record of each student enrolled, showing, if applicable —

     (1)     the instruction credited under 3.4.2.6, if any; and

     (2)     the authenticated transcript of grades from a school previously attended.

     3.1.4.2  GRADUATION CERTIFICATES AND TRANSCRIPTS

     (a)     An ATO shall issue on completion of training a graduation certificate to each student who completes its approved course of training.

     (b)     An ATO shall include in each graduation certificate —

     (1)     the name of the school and the certificate number of the ATO;

     (2)     the name of the graduate to whom it was issued;

     (3)     the approved curriculum title;

     (4)     the date of graduation;

     (5)     a statement that the student has satisfactorily completed each required stage of the approved course of training including the tests for those stages;

     (6)     an authentication by an official of the school; and

     (7)     a statement showing the cross country flight training that the student received in the course of training, if applicable.

     (c)     An ATO shall not issue a graduation certificate to a student, or recommend a student for a licence or rating, unless the student has —

     (1)     completed the training specified in the approved course of training; and

     (2)     passed the required final tests.

     3.1.4.3  TRANSCRIPTS

     (a)     On request, an ATO shall provide a transcript of a student's grades to each student who is graduated from that ATO or who leaves it before being graduated.

     (b)     An ATO shall include in the transcript required by paragraph (a) —

     (1)     the curriculum in which the student was enrolled;

     (2)     whether the student satisfactorily completed that curriculum;

     (3)     the final grades the student received; and

     (4)     an authentication by an official of the school.

3.2     PILOT TRAINING

     3.2.1     General

     3.2.1.1  PILOT TRAINING COURSES

     (a)     The Authority will issue certificates and training specifications for two levels of ATO which conduct pilot flight training courses, as shown —

     (i)     a Level 1 ATO is one which conducts the preponderance of each flight training course using an actual aircraft;

     (ii)     a Level 2 ATO is one which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using simulation media which are qualified and approved by the Authority.

     (b)     The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of 3.1.2.2 —

     (1)     licensing and rating courses.

     (i)     private pilot course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix A)

     (ii)     Commercial pilot course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix B)

     (iii)     instrument rating course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix C)

     (iv)     airline transport pilot course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix D)

     (v)     flight instructor course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix E)

     (vi)     flight instructor instrument course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix F)

     (vii)     ground instructor course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix G)

     (viii)     additional aircraft category or class rating course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix H)

     (ix)     aircraft type rating course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix I)

     (2)     Special preparation courses. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix J)

     (i)     pilot refresher course;

     (ii)     flight instructor refresher course;

     (iii)     ground instructor refresher course;

     (iv)     agricultural aircraft operations course;

     (v)     rotorcraft external load operations course;

     (vi)     special operations course;

     (vii)     test pilot course.

     (3)     pilot ground school course. (IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix K)

     (c)     The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of a Level 2 ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of 3.1.2.2 —

     (1)     any course for licensing or for any rating for which the applicant can show an effective curriculum and for which the Authority has qualified the simulation media.

     3.2.1.2  REQUIREMENTS FOR A LEVEL 1 ATO CERTIFICATE

     (a)     The Authority will issue to an applicant a Level 1 ATO certificate with associated ratings if the applicant —

     (1)     held a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate issued under this Part for at least 24 calendar months preceding the month of application;

     (2)     meets the applicable requirements of this Subpart for the ratings sought; and

     (3)     within 24 calendar months preceding the month of application, has trained, recommended, and had at least 80% of all applicants pass on the first attempt —

     (i)     a knowledge or a practical test for a pilot licence, flight instructor licence, ground instructor licence, or an additional rating; and

     (ii)     any combination of tests specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2).

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.1.1 Appendix J: Special Preparation Courses for an end-of-course test for a special training course.

     3.2.1.3  PROVISIONAL LEVEL 1 ATO CERTIFICATE

The Authority may issue to an applicant that meets the applicable requirements of this Subpart, but does not meet the recent training activity requirements of 3.2.1.1, a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate with ratings.

     3.2.1.4  RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS

     (a)     Level 1 ATO.

     (1)     A Level 1 ATO may apply for renewal of its certificate and ratings within 30 days preceding the month the Level 1 ATO's certificate expires, provided the ATO meets the requirements prescribed in paragraph (a)(2).

     (2)     The Authority will renew for an additional 24 calendar months a Level 1 ATO certificate and ratings if the Authority determines the ATO's personnel, aircraft, facility and airport, approved training courses, training records, and recent training ability and quality meet the requirements.

     (3)     A Level 1 ATO that does not meet the renewal requirements in paragraph (a)(2), may apply for a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate if the school meets the requirements of 3.2.1.3.

     (b)     Provisional Level 1 ATO.

     (1)     Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3), the Authority will not renew a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate or the ratings on that certificate.

     (2)     A provisional Level 1 ATO may apply for a Level 1 ATO certificate and associated ratings provided that ATO meets the requirements of this Subpart.

     (3)     A former provisional Level 1 ATO may apply for another provisional Level 1 ATO certificate, provided 180 days have elapsed since its last provisional Level 1 ATO certificate expired.

     3.2.2     Flight Training Equipment Requirements

     3.2.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This section prescribes —

     (1)     the personnel and aircraft requirements for an ATO certificate; and

     (2)     the facilities that an ATO shall have available on a continuous basis.

     3.2.2.2  AIRPORT REQUIREMENTS

Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall show that it has continuous use of each airport at which training flights originate, and that the airport has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment.

1.  

   Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.2.2 for specific runway and equipment requirements.

     3.2.2.3  AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An ATO shall ensure, for each aircraft used for flight instruction and solo flights —

     (1)     except for flight instruction and solo flights in a curriculum for agricultural aircraft operations, external load operations, and similar aerial work operations, that the aircraft has a standard certificate of airworthiness issued by the Authority, or a foreign equivalent acceptable to the Authority;

     (2)     that each aircraft is maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of Part 4; and

     (3)     that each aircraft is equipped as provided in the training specifications for the approved course for which it is used.

     (b)     Except as provided in paragraph (c), an ATO shall ensure that each aircraft used for flight instruction is at least a 2 place aircraft with engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and that operate in a conventional manner from both pilot stations.

     (c)     An ATO may use aeroplanes with controls such as nose wheel steering, switches, fuel selectors, and engine air flow controls that are not easily reached and operated in a conventional manner by both pilots for flight instruction if the certificate holder determines that the flight instruction can be conducted in a safe manner considering the location of controls and their nonconventional operation, or both.

     (d)     An ATO shall ensure that each aircraft used in a course involving IFR operations is equipped and maintained for IFR operations.

     (e)     The Authority may approve aircraft with a restricted airworthiness certificate for use in the agricultural aircraft operations, external load operations, test pilot, and special operations courses listed in 3.1.3.3(a), if its use for training is not prohibited by the aircraft's operating limitations.

     3.2.2.4  FLIGHT SIMULATORS AND FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES

     (a)     An ATO shall show that each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, testing, and checking will be or is specifically qualified and approved by the Authority for —

     (1)     each manoeuvre and procedure for the make, model, and series of aircraft, set of aircraft, or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and

     (2)     each curriculum or training course in which the flight simulator or flight training device is used, if that curriculum or course is used to satisfy any requirement of these Regulations.

     (b)     A holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate shall show that each of its flight simulators and flight training devices —

     (1)     represent the aircraft for which the course is approved;

     (2)     is used only for training given by an authorised instructor; and

     (3)     is not used for more than 25% of the total flight training hour requirements.

     (c)     Each ATO shall ensure, prior to use, that the approval required by this section includes —

     (1)     the set of aircraft or type aircraft;

     (2)     if applicable, the particular variation within type for which the training, testing, or checking is being conducted; and

     (3)     the particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crewmember function to be performed.

     (d)     Each ATO shall ensure that each flight simulator or flight training device used by the ATO is —

     (1)     maintained to ensure the reliability of the performances, functions, and all other characteristics that were required for qualification;

     (2)     modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated if the modification results in changes to performance, function, or other characteristics required for qualification;

     (3)     given a functional preflight check each day before being used; and

     (4)     provided with a discrepancy log in which the instructor or evaluator, at the end of each training session, enters each discrepancy.

     (e)     Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, each ATO shall ensure that each component on a flight simulator or flight training device used by it is operative if the component is essential to, or involved in, the training, testing, or checking of airmen.

     (f)     The Authority will not restrict ATO instructors or students to specific —

     (1)     route segments during line-oriented flight training scenarios; or

     (2)     visual data bases replicating a specific customer's bases of operation.

     (g)     An ATO may request evaluation, qualification, and continuing evaluation for qualification of flight simulators and flight training devices without —

     (1)     holding an air operator certificate; or

     (2)     having a specific relationship to a holder of an air operator certificate.

     3.2.3     Curriculum and Syllabus Requirements

     3.2.3.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes the curriculum and syllabus requirements for the issuance of an ATO certificate and training specifications for training, testing, and checking conducted to meet the requirements of Part 2.

     3.2.3.2  APPROVAL OF TRAINING PROGRAM

     (a)     Each ATO shall apply to the Authority for training program approval.

     (b)     Each applicant for training program approval shall indicate in the application —

     (1)     which courses are part of the core curriculum and which courses are part of the speciality curriculum;

     (2)     which requirements of Part 2 would be satisfied by the curriculum or curricula; and

     (3)     which requirements of Part 2 would not be satisfied by the curriculum or curricula.

     (c)     After an ATO begins operations under an approved training program, the Authority may require the ATO to make revisions to that training program if the Authority finds that the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its approved training program.

     (d)     If the Authority requires an ATO to make revisions to an approved training program and the ATO does not make those required revisions within 30 calendar days, the Authority may suspend, revoke, or terminate the certificate under the provisions of 3.1.2.2(e).

     3.2.3.3  TRAINING PROGRAM CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS

An ATO shall ensure that a training program curriculum it submits to the Authority for approval meets the applicable requirements and contains —

     (1)     a syllabus for each proposed curriculum;

     (2)     minimum aircraft and flight training equipment requirements for each proposed curriculum;

     (3)     minimum instructor and evaluator qualifications for each proposed curriculum;

     (4)     a curriculum for initial training and continuing training of each instructor or evaluator employed to instruct in a proposed curriculum; and

     (5)     for each curriculum that provides for the issuance of a licence or rating in fewer than the minimum hours prescribed by Part 2 —

     (i)     a means of demonstrating the ability to accomplish such training in the reduced number of hours; and

     (ii)     a means of tracking student performance.

     3.2.4     Personnel Requirements

     3.2.4.1  APPLICABILITY

This section prescribes the personnel and flight training equipment requirements for an ATO that is conducting training necessary to meet the requirements of Part 2.

     3.2.4.2  LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An ATO shall not employ a person as an instructor in a flight training course that is subject to approval by the Authority unless that person —

     (1)     is at least 18 years of age;

     (2)     is able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language;

     (3)     if instructing in an aircraft in flight, holds a flight instructor licence;

     (4)     if instructing in simulated flight, satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c); and

     (5)     meets at least one of the following requirements —

     (i)     meets the aeronautical experience requirements for a commercial pilot licence, excluding the required hours of instruction in preparation for the commercial pilot practical test;

     (ii)     if instructing in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents an aeroplane requiring a type rating or if instructing in a curriculum leading to the issuance of an airline transport pilot licence, meets the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot; or

     (iii)     is employed as a flight simulator instructor or a flight training device instructor for an ATO providing instruction and testing to meet the requirements of Part 2.

     (b)     An ATO shall designate each instructor in writing for each approved course, prior to that person functioning as an instructor in that course.

     (c)     Prior to initial designation, each flight and simulator flight instructor shall complete the requirements of IS: 3.2.4.2(a).

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.4.2 for specific training eligibility requirements.

     3.2.4.3   LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR AND EVALUATOR PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

     (a)     An ATO may allow an instructor to provide —

     (1)     instruction for each curriculum for which that instructor is qualified;

     (2)     testing and checking for which that instructor is qualified; and

     (3)     instruction, testing, and checking intended to satisfy the requirements of this Part.

     (b)     An ATO whose instructor or evaluator is designated in accordance with the requirements to conduct training, testing, or checking in flight training equipment, may allow its instructor or evaluator to give endorsements required by Part 2 if that instructor or evaluator is authorised by the Authority to instruct or evaluate in a curriculum that requires such endorsements.

     (c)     An ATO shall not allow an instructor to —

     (1)     excluding briefings and debriefings, conduct more than 8 hours of instruction in any 24-consecutive-hour period, or more than 6 days or 40 hours in any 7 day period;

     (2)     provide flight training equipment instruction unless that instructor meets the requirements of 3.2.4.4(a)(1) through (a)(4), and 3.2.4.4(b), as applicable; or

     (3)     provide flight instruction in an aircraft unless that instructor —

     (i)     meets the requirements of 3.2.4.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(5);

     (ii)     holds a flight instructor licence;

     (iii)     holds pilot licences and ratings applicable to the category, class, and type aircraft in which instructing;

     (iv)     if instructing or evaluating in an aircraft in flight while occupying a required crewmember seat, holds at least a valid second class medical certificate; and

     (v)     meets the recency of experience requirements of 8.10.1.33 and 8.10.1.37.

     3.2.4.4  LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraph (c), prior to designation and every 12 calendar months beginning the first day of the month following an instructor's initial designation, a certificate holder shall ensure that each of its instructors meets the following requirements.

     (1)     each flight instructor or simulator flight instructor shall satisfactorily demonstrate to an authorised evaluator knowledge of, and proficiency in, instructing in a representative segment of each curriculum for which that instructor is designated to instruct under Subpart 3.4;

     (2)     each instructor shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction in at least —

     (i)     the fundamental principles of the learning process;

     (ii)     elements of effective teaching, instruction methods, and techniques;

     (iii)     instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations;

     (iv)     training policies and procedures;

     (v)     cockpit resource management and crew co-ordination; and

     (vi)     evaluation.

     (3)     Each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator or flight training device shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of training in the operation of the flight simulator, and an approved course of ground instruction, applicable to the training courses the instructor is designated to instruct, which shall include —

     (i)     proper operation of flight simulator and flight training device controls and systems;

     (ii)     proper operation of environmental and fault panels;

     (iii)     limitations of simulation; and

     (iv)     minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum.

     (4)     Each flight instructor who provides training in an aircraft shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction and flight training in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device, which shall include —

     (i)     performance and analysis of flight training procedures and manoeuvres applicable to the training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct;

     (ii)     technical subjects covering aircraft subsystems and operating rules applicable to the training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct;

     (iii)     emergency operations;

     (iv)     emergency situations likely to develop during training; and

     (v)     appropriate safety measures.

     (5)     Each instructor who instructs in flight training equipment shall pass a knowledge test and annual proficiency check —

     (i)     in the flight training equipment in which the instructor will be instructing; and

     (ii)     on the subject matter and manoeuvres of a representative segment of each curriculum for which the instructor will be instructing.

     (b)     In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a) (5), each certificate holder shall ensure that each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator that the Authority has approved for all training and all testing for the airline transport pilot licensing test, aircraft type rating test, or both, has met at least one of the requirements of IS: 3.2.4.2 (b).

     (c)     The Authority will consider completion of a curriculum required by paragraph (a) or (b)     taken in the calendar month before or after the month in which it is due as taken in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next training is due.

     (d)     The Authority may give credit for the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) to an instructor who has satisfactorily completed an instructor training course for a Part 9 certificate holder if the Authority finds such a course equivalent to the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b).

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.4.2 specific testing and training requirements for a Level 2 ATO instructor.

     3.2.4.5  LEVEL 2 ATO EVALUATOR REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     Except as provided by paragraph (d), an ATO shall ensure that each person authorised as an evaluator —

     (1)     is approved by the Authority;

     (2)     is in compliance with 3.2.4.2, 3.2.4.3 and 3.2.4.4;

     (3)     prior to designation, satisfactorily completes a curriculum within 12 calendar months that includes the following —

     (i)     evaluator duties, functions and responsibilities;

     (ii)     methods, procedures and techniques for conducting required tests and checks;

     (iii)     evaluation of pilot performance; and

     (iv)     management of unsatisfactory tests and subsequent corrective action; and

     (4)     if evaluating in-flight training equipment, satisfactorily pass a knowledge test and annual proficiency check in a flight simulator or aircraft in which the evaluator will be evaluating.

     (b)     For the purpose of computing when evaluator training is due, the Authority will consider that an evaluator who satisfactorily completes a curriculum required by paragraph (a)(3) in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it was due, to have taken it in the month it was due.

     (c)     The Authority may give credit for the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) to an evaluator who has satisfactorily completed an evaluator training course for an AOC holder if the Authority finds such a course equivalent to the requirements of paragraph (a)(3).

     3.2.4.6  LEVEL 1 ATO PERSONNEL

     (a)     A Level 1 ATO shall have adequate personnel, including licenced flight instructors, licenced ground instructors, and holders of a commercial pilot licence with a lighter than air rating, if applicable, and a chief instructor who are qualified and competent to perform the duties assigned in each approved training course.

     (b)     An instructor for ground or flight training shall hold a flight instructor licence, ground instructor licence, or commercial pilot licence with a lighter than air rating, as appropriate, with ratings for the approved training course and any aircraft used in that course.

     3.2.4.7  LEVEL 1 ATO CHIEF INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

To be designated as a chief instructor for a Level 1 ATO course, a person shall meet one or more of the requirements of IS:3.2.4.7 as applicable.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.4.7. for chief instructor qualification requirements.

     3.2.4.8  LEVEL 1 ATO ASSISTANT CHIEF INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

To be designated as an assistant chief instructor for a Level 1 ATO course, a person shall meet the requirements of IS: 3.2.4.8.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.4.8 for assistant chief instructor qualification requirements.

     3.2.4.9  LEVEL 1 ATO CHECK INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

To be designated as a check instructor for a Level 1 ATO conducting student stage checks, end of course tests, and instructor proficiency checks under this Part, a person shall meet the applicable requirements of IS: 3.2.4.9.

Implementing Standard: See of IS: 3.2.4.9 for check instructor qualification requirements.

     3.2.4.10  LEVEL 1 ATO INSTRUCTOR FLIGHT TRAINING

     (a)     A person shall not give a student flight training under an approved course of training, unless he or she is a licenced flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter than air rating and, has the ratings and the minimum qualifications specified in the approved training course outline.

     (b)     An ATO shall not authorise a student pilot to start a solo flight until the flight has been approved by an authorised instructor who is present at the origination.

     (c)     A chief instructor or assistant chief instructor assigned to a training course shall complete, at least once every 12 calendar months, an approved syllabus of training consisting of ground or flight training, or both, or an approved flight instructor refresher course.

     (d)     A licenced flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter than air rating who is assigned to a flight training course shall satisfactorily complete the following tasks, which shall be administered by the school's chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor —

     (1)     prior to receiving authorization to train students in a flight training course, accomplish —

     (i)     a review of and a briefing on the objectives and standards of that training course; and

     (ii)     an initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft used in that training course in which that person provides training.

     (2)     Every 12 calendar months after the month in which the person last complied with paragraph (d)(1)(ii), accomplish a proficiency check in one of the aircraft the person trains students.

     3.2.4.11  LEVEL 1 ATO INSTRUCTOR GROUND TRAINING

     (a)     Except as provided in paragraph (b), an instructor who is assigned to a ground training course, shall hold a flight or ground instructor licence, or a commercial pilot licence with a lighter than air rating with the appropriate rating for that course of training.

     (b)     A person who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) may be assigned ground training duties in a ground training course, if —

     (1)     the chief instructor who is assigned to that ground training course finds the person qualified to give that training; and

     (2)     the instructor serves under the supervision of the chief instructor or the assistant chief instructor who is present at the facility when the training is given.

     (c)     An instructor shall not be used in a ground training course until he or she has been briefed in regard to the objectives and standards of that course by the chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor.

     3.2.4.12  LEVEL 1 ATO CHIEF INSTRUCTOR RESPONSIBILITIES

During training, a Level 1 ATO shall ensure that the chief instructor or an assistant chief instructor is available —

     (1)     at the Level 1 ATO, or

     (2)     by telephone, radio, or other electronic means.

     3.2.5     Operating Rules

     3.2.5.1  APPLICABILITY

This section prescribes the operating rules applicable to an ATO and operating a course or training program curriculum approved in accordance with this Part.

     3.2.5.2  PRIVILEGES

     (a)     A Level 2 ATO may allow flight simulator instructors and evaluators to meet recency of experience requirements through the use of a flight simulator or flight training device if that flight simulator or flight training device is used in a course approved in accordance with Section 3.2.5.

     (b)     The ATO may advertise and conduct approved pilot training courses in accordance with the certificate and any ratings that it holds.

     (c)     A Level 1 ATO may credit towards the curriculum requirements of a course, previous training and pilot experience and knowledge, provided the student meets the requirements of IS: 3.2.5.2.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.5.2 for specific transfer credit requirements.

     3.2.5.3  LIMITATIONS: ATO

     (a)     An ATO shall —

     (1)     ensure that a flight simulator or flight training device freeze, slow motion, or repositioning feature is not used during testing or checking; and

     (2)     ensure that a repositioning feature is used during line operational simulation for evaluation and line-oriented flight training only to advance along a flight route to the point where the descent and approach phase of the flight begins.

     (b)     When practical testing, flight checking, or line operational simulation is being conducted, the Level 2 ATO shall ensure that one of the following occupies each supporting crewmember position —

     (1)     a crewmember qualified as SIC in the aircraft category and class, provided that no flight instructor who is giving instruction may occupy a crewmember position; and

     (2)     a student, provided that no student may be used in a crewmember position with any other student not in the same specific course.

     (c)     Maintenance of Personnel, Facilities, and Equipment: An ATO shall not provide training to a student who is enrolled in an approved course of training unless each airport, all flight training equipment, and each authorised instructor and evaluator continuously meet the requirements and the standards specified in the certificate holder's training specifications.

     (d)     A certified ATO shall not require any student to attend classes of instruction more than 8 hours in any day or more than 6 days or 40 hours in any consecutive 7-day period.

     3.2.5.4  LIMITATIONS: ENROLLED STUDENTS IN ACTUAL FLIGHT CURRICULA

     (a)     A student pilot shall carry the following items on each aircraft used for flight training and solo flights —

     (1)     a pre-takeoff and pre-landing checklist; and

     (2)     the operator's handbook or AFM for the aircraft if one is furnished by the manufacturer or copies of the handbook to each student using the aircraft.

     3.2.5.5  LEVEL 1 ATO ENROLMENT DOCUMENTS

     (a)     The holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate shall furnish each student, on enrolment, with a copy of the following —

     (1)     a certificate of enrolment containing —

     (i)     the name of the course in which the student is enrolled; and

     (ii)     the date of that enrolment.

     (2)     a copy of the student's training syllabus.

     (3)     for pilot students, a copy of the safety procedures and practices that describe —

     (i)     the use of facilities and the operation of its aircraft;

     (ii)     the weather minimums required by the school for dual and solo flights;

     (iii)     the procedures for starting and taxiing aircraft on the ramp;

     (iv)     fire precautions and procedures;

     (v)     re-dispatch procedures after unprogrammed landings, on and off airports;

     (vi)     aircraft discrepancies and write offs;

     (vii)     Securing of aircraft when not in use;

     (viii)     fuel reserves necessary for local and cross country flights;

     (ix)     avoidance of other aircraft in flight and on the ground;

     (x)     minimum altitude limitations and simulated emergency landing instructions; and

     (xi)     a description of and instructions regarding the use of assigned practice areas.

     (4)     A Level 1 ATO shall maintain a monthly listing of persons enrolled in each training course offered by the school.

     (b)     A Level 1 ATO shall ensure that each training course for which it seeks approval meets the minimum curriculum requirements.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.5.5 for Level 1 training course contents.

3.3     OTHER CREWMEMBERS

     3.3.1.1  SPECIAL CURRICULA

An ATO may apply for approval to conduct a special course of airman training for which a curriculum is not prescribed in the implementing standards, if the applicant shows that the training course contains features that could achieve a level of pilot proficiency equivalent to that achieved by a training course prescribed in the requirements of Part 2, as applicable.

3.4     AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHTCREW

     3.4.1     Other Than AMT Courses

     3.4.1.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Subpart provides an alternative means to accomplish flight training required by Parts 2 or 9.

     (b)     Certification under this Subpart is not required for training that is —

     (1)     approved under the provisions of Part 9; and

     (2)     conducted under Part 2, unless that Part requires certification under this Part.

     3.4.1.2  OTHER TRAINING COURSES

     (a)     The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the applicable requirements of 3.1.2.2(d) —

     (1)     flight operations officer.

     (2)     flight engineer.

     (3)     cabin crew.

     (4)     material handlers.

     (5)     ground servicing personnel.

     (6)     security personnel.

     (7)     others approved by the Authority.

     (b)     The Authority will approve a course for which the application is made if the ATO, or ATO applicant, shows that the course contains a curriculum that will achieve a level of competency equal to, or greater than, that required by the applicable Parts of these Regulations.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.1.1, Appendix M, for Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements.

     3.4.1.3  APPLICATION, DURATION, AND RENEWAL

     (a)     Application. An ATO proposing to train flight operations officers shall submit an application containing —

     (1)     instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics;

     (2)     a minimum of 200 total course hours; and

     (3)     an outline of the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the number of hours proposed for each.

     (b)     Duration and renewal —

     (1)     the authority to operate an aircraft flight operations officer licensing course expires 24 months after the last day of the month of issuance of the authority;

     (2)     the holder of an approval for an aircraft flight operations officer licensing course shall apply to the Authority for renewal within 30 days prior to the expiration date.

     (c)     Instruction —

     (1)     the holder of a course approval shall ensure that it maintains an adequate number of instructors who maintain a 24 calendar-month average of at least 80% of the graduates of that school passing the practical test on the first attempt.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.2.5.5 for course approval requirements.

     3.4.2     AMT Training Courses

     3.4.2.1  APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for —

     (1)     issuing ATO certificates and ratings;

     (2)     conducting licensing courses and associated ratings for AMTs; and

     (3)     instructing the general operating rules for the holders of AMT licences and ratings.

     3.4.2.2  AMT TRAINING COURSES

The Authority may approve courses of instruction in accordance with the ratings defined in IS 2.4.4.3 of Part 2, provided the ATO meets the requirements of 3.1.2.2.

     3.4.2.3  GENERAL CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An ATO shall have an approved curriculum that is designed to qualify its students to perform the duties of an AMT for a particular rating or ratings.

     (b)     The curriculum shall cover the subjects and items prescribed in Part 2, Appendix 2.

     (c)     An ATO shall teach each subject to at least the indicated level of proficiency defined in Part 2, Appendix 2

     (d)     The certificate holder shall maintain a curriculum that shows —

     (1)     the required practical projects to be completed;

     (2)     for each subject, the proportions of theory and other instruction to be given; and

     (3)     a list of the minimum required tests to be given.

     (e)     An ATO may issue AMT licences of competency to persons successfully completing speciality courses provided that all requirements are met and the licences of competency specifies the aircraft make and model to which the licence applies.

     3.4.2.4  AMT TRAINING PROGRAM PROVIDERS

     (a)     An ATO may apply to the Authority for approval for an AMT training program.

     (b)     An AOC holder, an AMO, or an ATO may apply to the Authority for approval for an AMT training program that meets the requirements of this Subpart.

Implementing Standard: See Part 2, Appendix 2, for AMT training program curriculum requirements.

     3.4.2.5  INSTRUCTOR REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     An ATO shall provide the number of instructors holding appropriate licences and ratings, issued under Part 2, Section 2.4.4, that the Authority determines is necessary to provide adequate instruction and supervision of the students, including at least one such instructor for each 25 students in each class held in a shop where students are performing actual tasks appropriate to the curriculum.

     (b)     An ATO may provide specialised instructors, who are not licenced in accordance with Part 2, to teach mathematics, physics, basic electricity, basic hydraulics, drawing, and similar subjects.

     (c)     An ATO shall maintain a list of the names and qualifications of such specialised instructors, and on request, provide a copy of the list, with a summary of the qualifications of each specialised instructor to the Authority.

     3.4.2.6  ATTENDANCE AND CREDIT FOR PRIOR INSTRUCTION OR EXPERIENCE

     (a)     An ATO may credit a student with instruction or previous experience as follows —

     (1)     Instruction satisfactorily completed at —

     (i)     an accredited university, college, or junior college;

     (ii)     an accredited vocational, technical, trade or high school;

     (iii)     a military technical school; or

     (iv)     an ATO.

     (2)     Previous aviation maintenance experience comparable to required curriculum subjects —

     (i)     by determining the amount of credit to be allowed by documents verifying previous experience; and

     (ii)     by giving the student a test equal to the one given to students who complete the comparable required curriculum subject at the ATO.

     (3)     Credit to be allowed for previous instruction —

     (i)     by an entrance test equal to one given to the students who complete a comparable required;

     (ii)     by an evaluation of an authenticated transcript from the student's former school; or

     (iii)     in the case of an applicant from a military school, only on the basis of an entrance test.

     (4)     An ATO may credit a student seeking an additional rating with previous satisfactory completion of the common portions of an AMT's curriculum.

     (b)     An ATO shall show hours of absence allowed and how it will make missed material available to the student.

CONTENTS

PART 4

AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION AND MARKING

4.1     GENERAL

     4.1.1.1     APPLICABILITY

Part 4 prescribes the requirements for registration and marking of Civil Aircraft under the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act for the time being in force.

     4.1.1.2     DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     4.1.1.3     ACRONYMS

There are no abbreviations used in Part 4.

4.2     REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS

     4.2.1.1     GENERAL

     (a)     No person may operate a civil aircraft that is eligible for registration under the laws of Saint Lucia unless it has been registered by its owner or operator under the provisions of the laws of Saint Lucia and the Authority has issued a certificate of registration for that aircraft which shall be carried aboard that aircraft for all operations.

     (b)     The certificate of aircraft registration will be issued by the Authority in the form as contained in Implementing Standards.

     4.2.1.2     REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY

An aircraft shall be eligible for registration in accordance with the requirements of regulation 26(2).

     4.2.1.3     APPLICATION

     (a)     A person who wishes to register an aircraft in Saint Lucia must submit an application for aircraft registration to the Authority in a form and manner in a manner prescribed by the Authority. Each application shall —

     (1)     certify eligibility as required by Chapter 4;

     (2)     be signed by the applicant.

     (b)     The fee provided for by law will be submitted with the application for aircraft registration to the Authority.

     (c)     On an applicant meeting all requirements for registration, a certificate of Registration will be issued by the Authority.

     4.2.1.4     AIRCRAFT REGISTRY

     (a)     The Authority shall maintain an aircraft registry showing for each aircraft registered by Saint Lucia the information recorded on the certificate of aircraft registration and any other information required by the Authority.

     (b)     On request, the Authority will provide information to another ICAO Contracting State or to ICAO as to aircraft registration or ownership of any particular aircraft registered in Saint Lucia.

4.3     NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS

     4.3.1.1     APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the identification and marking of civil aircraft registered in Saint Lucia.

     4.3.1.2     GENERAL

     (a)     A person shall operate a civil aircraft registered in Saint Lucia only if it displays the nationality and registration marks in accordance with the requirements of this section. The letter or letters used to identify the nationality of Saint Lucia shall conform with the requirements outlined in ICAO Annex 7.

     (b)     Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person shall not display on any aircraft any design, mark, or symbol that modifies the nationality and registration marks.

     (c)     Permanent marking of aircraft nationality and registration shall —

     (1)     Be painted on the aircraft or affixed by other means insuring a similar degree of permanence;

     (2)     Have no ornamentation;

     (3)     Contrast in colour with the background;

     (4)     Be legible, and

     (5)     Be kept clean and visible at all times.

     4.3.1.3     DISPLAY OF MARKS: GENERAL

     (a)     The nationality mark of the aircraft shall consist of the Roman capital letter denoting the nationality of Saint Lucia followed by the registration number of the aircraft in Arabic numerals. Each suffix letter used in the marks displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.

     (b)     If, because of the aircraft configuration, it is not possible to mark the aircraft in accordance with this Part, the owner may apply to the Authority for a different procedure.

     4.3.1.4     SIZE OF MARKS

     (a)     The operator of an aircraft shall display marks on the aircraft meeting the size requirements of this section.

     (b)     Height. The character marks in each separate group shall be of equal height and on —

     (1)     Fixed-wing aircraft —

     (i)     Wings- shall be at least 50 cm

     (ii)     Fuselage and vertical tail surfaces - shall be at least 30 cm high;

     (2)     Rotorcraft shall be at least 30 cm high; and

     (3)     Lighter-than-air aircraft at least 50 cm high.

     (c)     Width. Characters must be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number “1”, which must be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters “M” and “W” which may be as wide as they are high.

     (d)     Thickness. Characters shall be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the character is high.

     (e)     Spacing. The space between each character may not be less than ^1/₄ of the character width.

     (f)     Uniformity. The marks required by this Part for fixed-wing aircraft must have the same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft.

     4.3.1.5     LOCATION OF MARKS ON HEAVIER-THAN-AIR AIRCRAFT

     (a)     The owner of a fixed-wing aircraft shall display the marks once on the lower surface of the wing structure as follows —

     (1)     They shall be located on the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure unless they extend across the whole of the lower surface of the wing structure.

     (2)     So far as is possible, the marks shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edge of the wings.

     (3)     The tops of the letters and numbers shall be toward the leading edge of the wing.

     (b)     On a heavier than air aircraft with a fuselage (or equivalent structure) or a vertical tail surface, the marks shall appear on either the vertical tail surfaces or the sides of the fuselage as follows —

     (1)     If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multi-vertical tail.

     (2)     If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer.

     (3)     If engine pods or other appurtenances are located in the area described in paragraph (b) (2) and are an integral part of the aircraft, the marks may appear on those pods or appurtenances

     4.3.1.6     LOCATION OF MARKS ON LIGHTER-THAN-AIR AIRCRAFT

     (a)     Airships. The operator shall place marks on an airship to appear on —

     (1)     the hull, located lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on the line of symmetry; or

     (2)     the horizontal and vertical stabilizers surfaces —

     (i)     for the horizontal stabilizer, located on the right half of the upper surface and on the left half of the lower surface, with the tops of the letters and numbers toward the leading edge; and

     (ii)     for the vertical stabilizer, located on each side of the bottom half stabilizer, with the letters and numbers placed horizontally.

     (b)     Spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear in two places diametrically opposite each other and located near the maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.

     (c)     Non-spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear on each side, located near the maximum cross-section of the balloon immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables.

     (d)     Lighter-than-air aircraft (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply side marks to be visible both from the sides and from the ground.

     (e)     Unmanned free balloons. The operator shall apply marks to appear on the identification plate.

     4.3.1.7     LOCATION OF MARKS ON ROTORCRAFT

The operator of a rotorcraft shall display marks horizontally on both surfaces of the cabin, fuselage, boom, or tail, such that the rotorcraft can be readily identified.

     4.3.1.8     SPECIAL CASES FOR SIZE AND LOCATION OF MARKS

     (a)     If either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks is large enough for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this section and the other is not, the operator shall place full-size marks on the larger surface.

     (b)     If neither surface is large enough for full-size marks, the Authority may approve marks as large as practicable for display on the larger of the 2 surfaces.

     (c)     If, because of the aircraft configuration, it is not possible to mark the aircraft in accordance with this Part, the owner may apply to the Authority for a different procedure.

Sale of Aircraft: Removal of Marks

When an aircraft that is registered in Saint Lucia is sold, the holder of the certificate of registration shall remove, before its delivery to the purchaser, all nationality and registration marks of Saint Lucia, unless the purchaser is a citizen or other legal entity as prescribed in Regulation 26(2)

     4.3.1.9     IDENTIFICATION PLATE REQUIRED

The operator of an aircraft registered pursuant to these Regulations shall affix to the aircraft, an identification plate —

     (1)     containing the aircraft type, model, serial number, marks of nationality and operator's name and location;

     (2)     made of fireproof metal or other fireproof material of suitable physical properties;

     (3)     secured onto the aircraft in a prominent position near the main entrance, or, in the case of a free balloon, affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the payload.

     4.3.1.10     TRANSFER OF FUNCTIONS AND DUTIES

     (a)     When an aircraft registered in Saint Lucia is operated by an operator who has an AOC from another contracting State, that Saint Lucia may, by agreement with such other State, transfer to it, all or part of its functions and duties as State of registry in respect of that aircraft. Under such an agreement, Saint Lucia shall be relieved of responsibility in respect of the functions and duties transferred;

     (b)     When an aircraft registered in another contracting State is operated by an operator who has an AOC from Saint Lucia, the contracting State may, by agreement with Saint Lucia, transfer all or part of its functions and duties as State of registry in respect of that aircraft to Saint Lucia. Under such an agreement, the contracting State shall be relieved of responsibility in respect of the functions and duties transferred;

     (c)     The above transfer shall not have effect before the agreement between States, in which it is embodied, has been registered with the ICAO Council.

CONTENTS

PART 5

AIRWORTHINESS

5.1     GENERAL

     5.1.1.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Part contains the requirements for —

     (1)     certification of aircraft and aeronautical components;

     (2)     issuance of Airworthiness Certificates and other certifications for aeronautical products;

     (3)     continued airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical components;

     (4)     rebuilding and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical components;

     (5)     maintenance and preventive maintenance of aircraft and aeronautical components;

     (6)     aircraft inspection requirements; and

     (7)     air operator aircraft maintenance and inspection requirements.

     5.1.1.2  DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     5.1.1.3  ACRONYMS

     (a)     The following acronyms are used in Part 5 —

     (1)     AOC – Air Operator Certificate (Civil Aviation Law)

     (2)     AMO – Approved Maintenance Organisation (Part 1)

     (3)     MEL – Minimum Equipment List (Part 1)

     (4)     PIC – Pilot in command (Part 1)

     (5)     TSO – Technical Standard Order.

5.2     AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENT ORIGINAL CERTIFICATION

     5.2.1.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Section describes the procedures and designation of applicable rules for original certification of an aircraft and related aeronautical products.

     (b)     The Authority shall hold this Subpart reserved until such time as it has received an application for Type Certificates, Production Certificates or other related approvals.

     (c)     An applicant for a production certificate for any aircraft or aeronautical product thereof for manufacture in Saint Lucia shall comply with the type certificate as required by the State of Design for approval.

     (d)     At such time as the application for production is presented the Authority shall make available suitable regulations or provisions for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate, or airworthiness document as appropriate for the product concerned.

5.3     SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

     5.3.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes procedural requirements for the issue of supplemental type certificates.

     5.3.1.2  ISSUANCE OF A SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATE

     (1)     Any person who alters a product by introducing a major change in type design, not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate, shall apply for a Supplemental Type Certificate, or equivalent, to the regulatory agency of the State of Design that approved the type certificate for that product, or to the State of Registry of the aircraft.

     (2)     The person referred to under section (1) shall apply in accordance with the procedures prescribed by that State.

5.4     AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

     5.4.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes procedures required for the issue of airworthiness certificates.

     5.4.1.2  ELIGIBILITY

     (a)     A registered owner or the agent of a registered owner of an aircraft registered in Saint Lucia shall apply for an airworthiness certificate for that aircraft.

     (b)     An applicant for an airworthiness certificate under part (a) shall apply in a form and manner that is acceptable to the Authority.

     5.4.1.3  CLASSIFICATIONS OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

     (a)     The Authority may issue a Standard Airworthiness Certificate for an aircraft which is used for either private or commercial flying;

     (b)     The Authority may issue a Special Airworthiness Certificate in the form of a restricted certificate;

     (c)     The Authority may issue an Aerial Work Certificate for an aircraft which is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.

     5.4.1.4  AMENDMENT OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

     (a)     The Authority may amend or modify an Airworthiness Certificate —

     (1)     on application from an operator; or

     (2)     on its own initiative.

     5.4.1.5  TRANSFER OR SURRENDER OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

     (a)     An owner of an aircraft shall transfer an Airworthiness Certificate —

     (1)     to the lessee on lease of an aircraft within or outside Saint Lucia; or

     (2)     to the buyer on sale of the aircraft within Saint Lucia.

     (b)     An owner shall surrender the Airworthiness Certificate for the aircraft to the issuing Authority on sale of that aircraft outside of Saint Lucia.

     5.4.1.6  EFFECTIVE DATES OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

     (a)     Airworthiness Certificates are effective as follows unless sooner surrendered, suspended or revoked, or a special termination date is otherwise established by the Authority – (See IS: 5.4.1.6)

     (1)     a Certificate of Airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid, subject to the laws of the State of Registry, provided that the State of Registry shall require that the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft shall be determined by a periodical inspection at appropriate intervals having regard to lapse of time and type of service.

     (b)     When an aircraft imported for registration in Saint Lucia has a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by another Contracting State, Saint Lucia may, as an alternative to issuance of its own Certificate of Airworthiness, establish validity by suitable authorization to be carried with the former Certificate of Airworthiness accepting it as the equivalent of a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by Saint Lucia. The validity of the authorization under part (b) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the Certificate of Airworthiness or as indicated in IS 5.4.1.6.

     5.4.1.7  AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION

An applicant for an airworthiness certificate shall show that the aircraft is properly registered and marked, and includes at least one fireproof identification plate in accordance with Part 4.3.1.10

     5.4.1.8  ISSUE OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

     (a)     The Authority shall issue a Standard Airworthiness certificate if —

     (1)     the applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a type design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to the applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture;

     (2)     the aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules of this regulation for inspections and found airworthy by persons authorised by the Authority to make such determinations within the last 30 calendar days; and

     (3)     the Authority finds after an inspection that the aircraft conforms to type design and is in condition for safe operation.

     (b)     The Authority may validate an airworthiness or aerial work certificate issued by another Contracting State on registration of the aircraft in Saint Lucia. The validity of the validation shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the airworthiness certificate or one year, whichever is less.

     5.4.1.9  AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

     (a)     On registration of an aircraft in Saint Lucia, the Authority shall notify the State of Design of the aircraft of the registration in Saint Lucia, and request that the Authority receives any and all airworthiness directives addressing that aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance or component part.

     (b)     Whenever the State of Design or State of Manufacture considers that a condition in an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part is unsafe as shown by the issuance of an airworthiness directive by that State, the requirements of such directives shall apply to Saint Lucia registered civil aircraft of the type identified in that airworthiness directive.

     (c)     The Authority shall identify manufacturer's service bulletins and other sources of data, or develop and prescribe inspections, procedures and limitations, for mandatory compliance pertaining to affected aircraft in Saint Lucia.

     (d)     A person shall not operate any civil aircraft registered in Saint Lucia to which the measures of this subsection apply, except in accordance with the applicable directives.

     5.4.1.10  COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

The Authority shall consider an airworthiness certificate valid for commercial air transport only when the aircraft is operated in accordance with a valid AOC issued by the State of the Operator.

     5.4.1.11  ISSUE OF SPECIAL AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

     (i)     The Authority may issue a Special Airworthiness Certificate to an aircraft that does not qualify for a Standard Certificate;

     (ii)     Aircraft holding Special Airworthiness Certificates shall be subject to operating limitations within Saint Lucia and may not make international flights;

     (iii)     The Authority may issue specific operating limitations for each Special Airworthiness Certificate.

FERRY FLIGHT PERMITS

     (i)     The Authority may issue a Ferry Flight Permit to an aircraft that is capable of safe flight, but unable to meet applicable airworthiness requirements, for the purpose of —

     (1)     flying to a base where repairs, modifications, maintenance, or inspections are to be performed, or to a point of storage;

     (2)     delivering or exporting an aircraft;

     (3)     evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger;

     (4)     operating at weights in excess of the aircraft's maximum Certified Takeoff Weight for flight beyond normal range over water or land areas, where adequate landing facilities or appropriate fuel is not available and the excess weight is limited to additional fuel, fuel-carrying facilities and navigation equipment necessary for the flight; and

     (ii)     The Authority shall require a properly executed maintenance release in the aircraft permanent record by a suitably licenced person or AMO.

     (iii)     The Authority may issue specific operating limitations for each Ferry Flight Permit.

     (iv)     The operator shall obtain all required over flight authorizations from countries to be overflown on flights outside of Antigua and Barbuda.

Note.—Foreign Authorities may refuse flight from, into or through their airspace.

PERMITS TO FLY

     (i)     The Authority may issue a Permit to Fly to an aircraft for testing after repairs, modifications, or maintenance;

     (ii)     The Authority shall require a properly executed maintenance release in the aircraft permanent record by a suitably licenced person or AMO;

     (iii)     The Authority may issue specific operating limitations for each Permit to Fly.

     5.4.1.12  AIRCRAFT NOISE CERTIFICATION

     (a)     Noise certification of an aircraft shall be granted by the Authority on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with requirements specified in IS: 5.4.1.12.

     (b)     When an aircraft imported for registration in Saint Lucia has a Noise Certificate issued by another Contracting State, Saint Lucia may, as an alternative to issuance of its own Noise Certificate, establish validity by suitable authorization to be carried with the former Noise Certificate, accepting it as the equivalent of a Noise Certificate issued by Saint Lucia.

5.5     CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS

     5.5.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes rules governing the continued airworthiness of civil aircraft registered in Saint Lucia, whether operating inside or outside the borders of Saint Lucia.

     5.5.1.2  RESPONSIBILITY

     (a)     An owner or a lessee of an aircraft shall be responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition by ensuring that —

     (1)     all maintenance, overhaul, modifications and repairs which affect airworthiness are performed as prescribed by the State of Registry;

     (2)     maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records certifying that the aircraft is airworthy;

     (3)     the approval for return to service (maintenance release) is completed to the effect that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with the prescribed methods; and

     (4)     in the event there are open discrepancies, the maintenance release includes a list of the uncorrected maintenance items and these items are made a part of the aircraft permanent record.

     5.5.1.3  GENERAL

     (a)     A person shall not perform any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this regulation.

     (b)     A person shall not operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness limitation section unless the —

     (i)     mandatory replacement times;

     (ii)     inspection intervals; and

     (iii)     related procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in the specific operating provisions approved under part 9, or in accordance with the inspection program approved under Part 8 have been complied with.

     (c)     A person shall not operate an aeronautical product to which an Airworthiness Directive applies, issued either by the State of Design, State of Manufacture or by the State of Registry for aircraft operated within Saint Lucia, except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.

     (d)     When the Authority determines that an airframe or aeronautical product has exhibited an unsafe condition and that condition is likely to exist or to develop in other products of the same type design, the Authority shall issue an Airworthiness Directive prescribing inspections and the conditions and limitations, if any, under which those products may continue to be operated.

     5.5.1.4  REPORTING OF FAILURES, MALFUNCTIONS, AND DEFECTS

     (a)     An owner or an operator of an aircraft shall report to the Authority any failures, malfunctions, or defects that may result in at least the following —

     (1)     fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system properly operated;

     (2)     fires during flight not protected by a related fire-warning system;

     (3)     false fire warning during flight;

     (4)     an engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components;

     (5)     an aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapour, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight;

     (6)     engine shutdown during flight because of flameout;

     (7)     engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircraft structure occurs;

     (8)     engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing;

     (9)     shutdown during flight of more than one engine;

     (10)     a propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control over speed during flight;

     (11)     a fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage during flight;

     (12)     an unintended landing gear extension or retraction, or opening or closing of landing gear doors during flight;

     (13)     brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the aircraft is in motion on the ground;

     (14)     aircraft structure that requires major repair;

     (15)     cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structure, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the Authority;

     (16)     aircraft components or systems malfunctions that result in taking emergency actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine);

     (17)     each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected technical difficulties or malfunctions;

     (18)     any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system malfunction, defect, or failure;

     (19)     a failure or malfunction of more than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude instrument during a given operation of the aircraft.

     (20)     the number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed; or

     (21)     the number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed.

     (b)     A report required by this subsection shall —

     (1)     be made within 3 days after determining that the failure, malfunction, or defect required to be reported has occurred; and

     (2)     include as much of the following information as is available and applicable —

     (i)     aircraft serial number;

     (ii)     when the failure, malfunction, or defect is associated with an article approved under a TSO authorization, the article serial number and model designation, as appropriate;

     (iii)     when the failure, malfunction or defect is associated with an engine or propeller, the engine or propeller serial number, as appropriate;

     (iv)     product model;

     (v)     identification of the part, component, or system involved, including the part number; and

     (vi)     nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.

     (c)     The Authority, of the State of Registry of the aircraft, shall submit all such reports on receipt to the State of Design.

     (d)     The Authority, if not the State of Registry of the aircraft, will submit all such reports on receipt to the State of Registry.

5.6     AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE AND INSPECTION

     5.6.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes rules governing the maintenance and inspection of any aircraft having an Saint Lucia Airworthiness Certificate or associated aeronautical products.

     5.6.1.2  PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND MODIFICATIONS

     (a)     The persons authorised to perform maintenance subject to this Subpart include —

     (1)     a pilot licensed by the Authority;

     (2)     a person performing maintenance under the supervision of an aviation maintenance technician;

     (3)     an aviation maintenance technician;

     (4)     an AMO.

     (b)     This Section outlines the privileges and limitations of these entities with respect to the extent and type of work they may perform regarding —

     (1)     maintenance,

     (2)     preventive Maintenance,

     (3)     modification,

     (4)     inspection, and

     (5)     approvals for return to service.

     5.6.1.3  PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE

     (a)     A person shall not perform any task defined as maintenance on an aircraft or aeronautical products, except as provided in the following —

     (1)     a pilot licenced by the Authority may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot so long as the aircraft is not listed for use by an AOC holder.

     (2)     a person working under the supervision of an aviation maintenance technician, may perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance and modifications that the supervisory aviation maintenance technician is authorised to perform —

     (i)     if the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the extent necessary to ensure that it is being done properly, and

     (ii)     if the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation.

     (3)     a licenced aviation maintenance technician may perform or supervise the maintenance or modification of an aircraft or aeronautical product for which he or she is rated subject to the limitations of Part 2, Section 2.4.4 of these Regulations.

     (4)     an AMO may perform aircraft maintenance within the limits specified by the Authority.

     (5)     a manufacturer holding an AMO may —

     (i)     rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer under a type or production certificate;

     (ii)     rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer under a TSO Authorization, a Parts Manufacturer Approval by the State of Design, or Product and Process Specification issued by the State of Design; and

     (iii)     perform any inspection required by Part 8 on aircraft it manufacturers, while currently operating under a production certificate or under a currently approved production inspection system for such aircraft.

     5.6.1.4  AUTHORISED PERSONNEL TO APPROVE FOR RETURN TO SERVICE

     (a)     A person or an entity, other than the Authority, shall not approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification, except as provided in the following —

     (1)     a pilot licenced by the Authority may return his or her aircraft to service after performing authorised preventive maintenance.

     (2)     a licenced aviation maintenance technician may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service after he or she has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance subject to the limitation of Part 2, Section 2.4.4 of these Regulations.

     (3)     an AMO may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.

     5.6.1.5  PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM INSPECTIONS

     (a)     A person, unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, shall not perform the inspections required by 8.2.1.7 for aircraft and aeronautical products prior to or after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification, except as provided in the following —

     (1)     an aviation maintenance technician may conduct the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products for which he or she is rated and current;

     (2)     an aviation maintenance technician may conduct the required duplicate inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products for which he or she is rated and current; (See IS: 5.6.1.5)

     (3)     an AMO may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products as provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.

     5.6.1.6  PERFORMANCE RULES: MAINTENANCE

     (a)     A person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an aeronautical product shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in —

     (1)     the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer; and

     (2)     additional methods, techniques and practices required by the Authority; or methods, techniques and practices designated by the Authority where the manufacturer's documents were not available.

See Implementing Standard IS: 5.6.1.6

     (b)     A person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If the manufacturer involved recommends special equipment or test apparatus, the person performing maintenance shall use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Authority;

     (c)     If the manufacturer involved recommends special equipment or test apparatus, the person performing maintenance shall use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Authority;

     (d)     A person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an aeronautical product shall do that work in such a manner, and use materials of such a quality, that the condition of the aeronautical product worked on will be at least equal to its original or properly altered condition with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibration and deterioration, and other qualities affecting airworthiness;

     (e)     the methods, techniques, and practices contained in an AOC holder's maintenance control manual and continuous maintenance program, as approved by the Authority, shall constitute an acceptable means of compliance with the requirements of this subsection;

     (f)     each person performing a major modification or repair defined in this Part will use data approved by the Authority —

     (1)     the approved data used must be referenced on the form or log entry used to approve the modification or repair for return to service.

     (2)     acceptable “approved data” is data specifically approved by the following for the modification or repair —

     (i)     the Authority;

     (ii)     the State of Manufacture;

     (iii)     a Designee authorized by the State of Manufacture for that type modification or repair;

     (iv)     the State of Design; or

     (v)     a Designee authorized by the State of Design for that type modification or repair.

     5.6.1.7  PERFORMANCE RULES: INSPECTIONS

     (a)     General. A person performing an inspection required by the Authority shall —

     (1)     perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s) thereof under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and

     (2)     if there is an inspection program required or accepted for the specific aircraft being inspected, perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and procedures set forth in the inspection program.

     (b)     Rotorcraft. A person performing an inspection required on a rotorcraft shall inspect the following systems in accordance with the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned —

     (1)     the drive shafts or similar systems,

     (2)     the main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects,

     (3)     the main rotor and centre section (or the equivalent area), and

     (4)     the auxiliary rotor on helicopters.

     (c)     Annual and 100-hour inspections.

     (1)     A person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist while performing the inspection.

     (2)     The checklist referred to in section (1) may be of the person's own design, one provided by the manufacturer of the equipment being inspected, or one obtained from another source and shall include the scope and detail of the items prescribed by the Authority.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.6.1.7 for components to be included in an annual or 100-hour inspection.

     (3)     A person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manufacturer's recommendations of —

     (i)     power output (static and idle rpm);

     (ii)     magnetos;

     (iii)     fuel and oil pressure; and

     (iv)     cylinder and oil temperature.

     (4)     A person approving a turbine-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manufacturer's recommendations.

     5.6.1.8  PERFORMANCE RULES: AIRWORTHINESS LIMITATIONS

A person performing an inspection or other maintenance specified in an airworthiness limitations section of a current manufacturer's maintenance manual, or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, shall perform the inspection or other maintenance in accordance with that section, or in accordance with specifications approved by the Authority.

5.7     MAINTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES

     5.7.1.1  CONTENT, FORM AND DISPOSITION OF MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING AND MODIFICATION RECORDS

     (a)     A person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds or modifies an aircraft or aeronautical product shall, when the work is performed satisfactorily, make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment as follows —

     (1)     a description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of work performed;

     (2)     completion date of the work performed;

     (3)     name, signature, certificate number and kind of licence held by the person approving the work.

Note: The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

     (b)     A person performing the work under part (a) shall enter records of major repairs and major modifications, and dispose of that form in the manner prescribed by the Authority.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.7.1.1 for the maintenance form requirements and a sample major repair and modification form.

     (c)     A person working under supervision of an aviation maintenance technician shall not perform any inspection required in Part 8 or any inspection performed after a major repair or modification.

     5.7.1.2  RECORDS OF OVERHAUL AND REBUILDING

     (a)     A person shall not describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aeronautical product as being overhauled unless —

     (1)     it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, and reassembled using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority; and

     (2)     it has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance manufacturing approval.

     (b)     A person shall not describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aircraft or other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been —

     (i)     disassembled;

     (ii)     cleaned;

     (iii)     inspected as permitted;

     (iv)     repaired as necessary, reassembled; and

     (v)     tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits.

Note: Part 5.7.1.2(a) reflects the required maintenance entry for rebuilt. As identified in Part 5.6.1.3(a)(5) only a manufacturer holding an AMO can rebuild an aeronautical product.

     5.7.1.3  APPROVAL FOR RETURN TO SERVICE AFTER MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, OR MODIFICATION

     (a)     A person shall not approve for return to service any aeronautical product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless —

     (1)     the appropriate maintenance record entry has been made;

     (2)     the repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by the Authority has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority;

     (3)     if a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.7.1.1 for the repair or modification form requirements.

     5.7.1.4  CONTENT, FORM, AND DISPOSITION OF RECORDS FOR INSPECTIONS

     (a)     Maintenance record entries. A person approving or disapproving the return to service of an aeronautical product after any inspection performed in accordance with Part 8, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information —

     (1)     type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection;

     (2)     date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service;

     (3)     signature, the licence number, and kind of licence held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aeronautical product;

     (4)     if the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the following or a similarly worded statement – “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in an airworthy condition”;

     (5)     if the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement – I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator; and

     (6)     if an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in Part 8, the person performing the inspection shall make an entry identifying the inspection program accomplished, and containing a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

     (b)     Listing of discrepancies. A person performing any inspection required in Part 8 who finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives or other approved data on which its airworthiness depends, shall give the owner or the operator of the aircraft a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.

CONTENTS

PART 6

APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANISATIONS

6.1     GENERAL

     6.1.1.1  APPLICABILITY

This Part prescribes the requirements for issuing approvals to organisations for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical products and prescribes the general operating rules for an Approved Maintenance Organisation (AMO). The approval, when granted, shall apply to the whole organisation and shall be headed by the accountable manager.

     6.1.1.2  DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     6.1.1.3  ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Part —

     (1)     AMO – Approved Maintenance Organisation

     (2)     PMA – Parts Manufacturing Authorization

     (3)     TSO – Technical Standard Order.

     6.1.1.4  CERTIFICATE AND SPECIFIC OPERATING PROVISIONS

     (a)     The AMO certificate will consist of two documents —

     (1)     a one page certificate signed by the Authority, and

     (2)     a multi-page specific operating provisions signed by the Accountable Manager and the Authority containing the terms, conditions, and authorizations.

     (b)     A person shall not operate as an AMO without, or in violation of, an AMO certificate issued under this Part.

     (c)     An AMO may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof only for which it is rated and within the limitations placed in its specific operating limitations.

     (d)     The AMO certificate will contain —

     (1)     the certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO;

     (2)     the name and location (main place of business) of the AMO;

     (3)     the date of issue and period of validity;

     (4)     the ratings issued to the AMO; and

     (5)     authority signature.

     (e)     The AMO Specific Operating Provisions will contain —

     (1)     the certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO;

     (2)     the class or limited ratings issued in detail, including special approvals and limitations issued;

     (3)     the date issued or revised;

     (4)     accountable manager and Authority signatures.

     (f)     The certificate issued to each AMO must be available in the premises for inspection by the public and the Authority.

     6.1.1.5  ADVERTISING

     (a)     A person shall not advertise as an AMO until an AMO certificate has been issued to that person.

     (b)     An AMO shall not make any statement, either in writing or orally, about itself that is false or is designed to mislead any person.

     (c)     Whenever the advertising of an AMO indicates that it is an AMO, the advertisement must clearly state its AMO's certificate number.

     6.1.1.6  DEVIATION AUTHORITY

     (a)     The Authority may, on consideration of the circumstances of a particular maintenance organisation, issue a deviation providing relief from specified sections of this Part, provided that the Authority finds that the circumstances presented warrant the deviation and that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought. This deviation authority will be issued as a Letter of Deviation Authority.

     (b)     A Letter of Deviation Authority may be terminated or amended at any time by the Authority.

     (c)     A request for deviation authority must be made in a form and manner acceptable to the Authority and submitted to the Authority at least 60 days before the date the deviation from specified sections in this part is necessary for the intended maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification. A request for deviation authority must contain complete statement of the circumstances and justifications for the deviation requested, and show that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought.

     (d)     An AMO that receives a Letter of Deviation Authority must have a means of notifying the appropriate management, certifying staff, and personnel of the deviation, including the extent of the deviation and when the deviation is terminated or amended.

6.2     CERTIFICATION

     6.2.1.1  APPLICATION FOR AN AMO CERTIFICATE

     (a)     The Authority will require an applicant for an AMO certificate to submit the following —

     (1)     an application in a form and a manner prescribed by the Authority;

     (2)     its maintenance procedures manual;

     (3)     a list of the maintenance functions to be performed for it, under contract, by another AMO;

     (4)     a list of all AMO certificates and ratings pertinent to those certificates issued by any contracting State other than Saint Lucia; and

     (5)     any additional information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.

Note: “In a form” and “in a manner” mean that a form issued by the Authority should be completed by the accountable manager, or the manager's nominee designated in accordance with 6.2.1.1(a).

Note: On approval of its maintenance procedures manual by the Authority, the AMO will be required to submit a copy to the Authority.

     (b)     An application for the amendment of an existing AMO certificate shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. If applicable, the AMO shall submit the required amendment to the maintenance procedures manual to the Authority for approval.

     6.2.1.2  ISSUANCE OF AN AMO CERTIFICATE

An applicant may be issued an AMO certificate if, after investigation, the Authority finds that the applicant —

     (1)     meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AMO;

     (2)     is properly and adequately equipped for the performance of maintenance of aircraft or aeronautical product for which it seeks approval; and

     (3)     is fit, having regard in particular to the applicant's previous conduct, or if there is evidence of unlawful conduct in aviation or previous breaches of aviation regulations.

     6.2.1.3  DURATION AND RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATE

     (a)     A certificate or rating issued to an AMO located in Saint Lucia is effective for the period specified on the certificate or until the AMO surrenders it or the Authority suspends or revokes it.

     (b)     A certificate or rating issued to an AMO located outside the Saint Lucia is effective —

     (1)     for the period specified on the certificate,

     (2)     until the AMO surrenders the certificate, or

     (3)     until the Authority suspends or revokes the certificate.

     (c)     The holder of a certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked by the Authority must return the certificate and specific operating provisions to the Authority.

     (d)     An AMO located outside Saint Lucia that applies for a renewal of its AMO certificate for aircraft registered in Saint Lucia must —

     (1)     submit its request for renewal to the Authority, no later than 45 days before the AMO's current certificate expires. If a request for renewal is not made within this period, the AMO must follow the application procedure prescribed by the Authority.

     6.2.1.4  CONTINUED VALIDITY OF APPROVAL

     (a)     Unless the approval has previously been surrendered, superseded, suspended, revoked or expired by virtue of exceeding any expiration date that may be specified in the approval certificate, the continued validity of approval is dependent on —

     (1)     the AMO remaining in compliance with this Part;

     (2)     the Authority being granted access to the organisation's facilities to determine continued compliance with this regulation; and

     (3)     the payment of any charges prescribed by the Authority.

     (b)     The holder of an AMO certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked, shall return it to the Authority.

     6.2.1.5  CHANGES TO THE AMO AND CERTIFICATE AMENDMENTS

     (a)     To enable the Authority to determine continued compliance with this Part, the AMO shall provide written notification to the Authority either prior to, or within a time period determined by the Authority to be as soon as practicable after, any of the following changes —

     (1)     the name of the organisation;

     (2)     the location of the organisation;

     (3)     the housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, procedures, work scope and certifying staff that could affect the AMO rating or ratings;

     (4)     the ratings held by the AMO, whether granted by the Authority or held through an AMO certification issued by another contracting State;

Note: See subsection 6.2.1.1(a).

     (5)     additional locations of the organisation;

     (6)     the accountable manager; or

     (7)     the list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance procedures manual.

     (b)     The Authority will amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the Authority of a change in —

     (1)     location or housing and facilities;

     (2)     additional locations of the organisation;

     (3)     rating, including deletions;

     (4)     name of the organisation with same ownership; or

     (5)     ownership.

     (c)     The Authority may amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the Authority of a change in —

     (1)     the accountable manager; or

     (2)     the list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance procedure manual.

     (d)     When the Authority issues an amendment to an AMO certificate because of new ownership of the AMO, the Authority will assign a new certificate number to the amended AMO certificate.

     (e)     The Authority may —

     (1)     prescribe, in writing, the conditions under which the AMO may continue to operate during any period of implementation of the changes noted in subparagraph (a); and

     (2)     hold the AMO certificate in abeyance if the Authority determines that approval of the AMO certificate should be delayed; the Authority will notify the AMO certificate holder, in writing, of the reasons for any such delay.

     (f)     If changes are made by the AMO to the items listed in subparagraph (a) without notification to the Authority and amendment of the AMO certificate by the Authority, the AMO certificate may be suspended by the Authority.

     6.2.1.6  RATINGS OF THE AMO

The following ratings are issued under this Subpart —

     (1)     airframe ratings. An aircraft rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft, including work on the powerplant(s) of that aircraft up to, but not including, overhaul as that term defined in 5.1.1.2(a)(5) under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) of 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

     (ii)     Class 2: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) over 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight and up to, and including, 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

     (iii)     Class 3: Aircraft, (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily composite material) over 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

     (iv)     Class 4: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) of 2,736 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

     (v)     Class 5: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) over 2,736 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

     (vi)     Class 6: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, of 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

     (vii)     Class 7: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, over 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

     (2)     Powerplant ratings. A powerplant rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of powerplants under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Reciprocating engines.

     (ii)     Class 2: Turbopropeller and turboshaft engines.

     (iii)     Class 3: Turbojet and turbofan engines.

     (3)     Propeller ratings. A propeller rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of propellers under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Fixed-pitch and ground-adjustable propellers.

     (ii)     Class 2: Variable-pitch propellers.

     (4)     Avionics ratings. An avionics rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of avionics equipment under the following ratings —

     (i)     Class 1: Communication equipment: Any radio transmitting equipment or receiving equipment, or both, used in aircraft to send or receive communications, regardless of carrier frequency or type of modulation used; including auxiliary and related aircraft interphone systems, amplifier systems, electrical or electronic inter crew signalling devices, and similar equipment; but not including equipment used for navigation of the aircraft or as an aid to navigation, equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance, other measuring equipment operated on radio or radar principles, or mechanical, electrical, gyroscopic, or electronic instruments that are a part of communications avionics equipment.

     (ii)     Class 2: Navigational equipment: Any avionics system used in aircraft for en-route or approach navigation, except equipment operated on radar or pulsed radio frequency principles, but not including equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance or other distance equipment operated on pulsed radio frequency principles.

     (iii)     Class 3: Pulsed equipment: Any aircraft electronic system operated on pulsed radio frequency principles.

     (5)     Computer systems ratings. A computer systems rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of digital computer systems and components thereof, that have the function of receiving external data, processing such data, and transmitting and presenting the processed data under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Aircraft computer systems.

     (ii)     Class 2: Powerplant computer systems.

     (iii)     Class 3: Avionics computer systems.

     (6)     Instrument ratings. An instrument rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of instruments under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Mechanical: Any diaphragm, bourdon tube, aneroid, optical, or mechanically driven centrifugal instrument that is used on aircraft or to operate aircraft, including tachometers, airspeed indicators, pressure gauges, drift sights, magnetic compasses, altimeters, or similar mechanical instruments.

     (ii)     Class 2: Electrical: Any self-synchronous and electrical indicating instruments and systems, including remote indicating instruments, cylinder head temperature gauges, or similar electrical instruments.

     (iii)     Class 3: Gyroscopic: Any instrument or system using gyroscopic principles and motivated by air pressure or electrical energy, including automatic pilot control units, turn and bank indicators, directional gyros, and their parts, and flux gate and gyrosyn compasses.

     (iv)     Class 4: Electronic: Any instruments whose operation depends on electron tubes, transistors, or similar devices including capacitance type quantity gauges, system amplifiers, and engine analysers.

     (7)     Accessory ratings. An accessory rating on an AMO certificate permits that AMO to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of accessory equipment under the following classes —

     (i)     Class 1: Mechanical. The accessories that depend on friction, hydraulics, mechanical linkage, or pneumatic pressure for operation.

     (ii)     Class 2: Electrical. The accessories that depend on electrical energy.

     (iii)     Class 3: Electronic. The accessories that depend on the use of an electron tube transistors, lasers, fiber optics, solid-state, integrated circuits, vacuum tubes, or similar electronic controls.

     (iv)     Class 4: Auxiliary power units (APU's) that may be installed on aircraft as self-contained units to supplement the aircraft's engines as a source of hydraulic, pneumatic, or electrical power.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.2.1.6 for a detailed explanation of each rating.

     6.2.1.7  AMO LIMITED RATINGS

     (a)     Whenever the Authority finds it appropriate, it may issue a limited rating to an AMO that maintains or alters only a particular type of airframe, powerplant, propeller, radio, instrument, or accessory, or parts thereof, or performs only specialised maintenance requiring equipment and skills not ordinarily found in an AMO. Such a rating may be limited to a specific model aircraft, engine, or constituent part, or to any number of parts made by a particular manufacturer.

     (b)     Limited ratings are issued for —

     (1)     aircraft;

     (2)     airframe;

     (3)     powerplants;

     (4)     propellers;

     (5)     avionics equipment;

     (6)     computer systems;

     (7)     instruments;

     (8)     accessories; and

     (9)     any other purpose for which the Authority finds the applicant's request appropriate.

     (c)     Specialised service ratings. A specialised service rating may be issued to a maintenance organisation to perform specific maintenance or processes. The specific operating provisions of the AMO must identify the specification used in performing that specialised service. The specification may be —

     (1)     a civil or military specification that is currently used by industry and approved by the Authority; or

     (2)     a specification developed by the AMO and approved by the Authority.

6.3     HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, & MATERIALS

     6.3.1.1  GENERAL

A certificated AMO must provide personnel, facilities, equipment, and materials in quantity and quality that meet the standards required for the issuance of the certificate and ratings that the AMO holds.

     6.3.1.2  HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     Housing and facilities shall be provided appropriate for all planned work ensuring, in particular, protection from weather.

     (b)     All work environments shall be appropriate for the task carried out and shall not impair the effectiveness of personnel.

     (c)     Office accommodation shall be appropriate for the management of planned work including, in particular, the management of quality, planning, and technical records.

     (d)     Specialised workshops and bays shall be segregated, as appropriate, to ensure that environmental and work area contamination is unlikely to occur.

     (e)     Storage facilities shall be provided for parts, equipment, tools and material.

     (f)     Storage conditions shall be provided security for serviceable parts, segregation of serviceable from unserviceable parts, and prevent deterioration of and damage to stored items.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.3.1.2 for detailed requirements pertaining to housing and facilities.

     6.3.1.3  EQUIPMENT, TOOLS, AND MATERIAL

     (a)     The AMO shall have available the necessary equipment, tools, and material to perform the approved scope of work and these items shall be under full control of the AMO. The availability of equipment and tools means permanent availability except in the case of any tool or equipment that is so rarely needed that its permanent availability is not necessary.

     (b)     The Authority may exempt an AMO from possessing specific tools and equipment for maintenance or repair of an aircraft or aeronautical product specified in the AMO's approval, if these items can be acquired temporarily, by prior arrangement and be under full control of the AMO when needed to perform required maintenance or repairs.

     (c)     The AMO shall control all applicable tools, equipment and test equipment used for product acceptance or for making a finding of airworthiness.

     (d)     The AMO shall ensure that all applicable tools, equipment and test equipment used for product acceptance or for making a finding of airworthiness are calibrated to ensure correct calibration to a standard acceptable to the Authority and traceable to the National Standards of Saint Lucia, the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, or other National Standard as individually accepted by the Authority.

     (e)     The AMO shall keep all records of calibrations and the standards used for calibration.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.3.1.3 for detailed requirements pertaining to tools, equipment, and test equipment.

6.4     ADMINISTRATION

     6.4.1.1  PERSONNEL AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     A management person or group of persons acceptable to the Authority, whose responsibilities include ensuring that the AMO is in compliance with these Regulations, shall be nominated.

     (b)     The person or persons nominated as manager shall represent the maintenance management structure of the AMO, and be responsible for all functions specified in this Part.

     (c)     Nominated managers shall be directly responsible to an accountable manager who shall be acceptable to the Authority.

     (d)     The AMO shall employ sufficient personnel to plan, perform, supervise and inspect and release the work in accordance with the approval.

     (e)     The competence of personnel involved in maintenance shall be established in accordance with a procedure and to a standard acceptable to the Authority.

     (f)     A person signing a maintenance release or an approval for return to service shall be qualified in accordance with Part 2 or 2.4.4 as appropriate to the work performed and shall be acceptable to the Authority.

     (g)     The maintenance personnel and the certifying staff shall meet the qualification requirements and receive initial and continuation training to their assigned tasks and responsibilities in accordance with a program acceptable to the Authority. The training program established by the AMO shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance, including co-ordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.4.1.1 for detailed personnel requirements.

     6.4.1.2  REST AND DUTY LIMITATIONS FOR PERSONS PERFORMING MAINTENANCE FUNCTIONS IN AN AMO

     (a)     A person shall not assign or perform maintenance functions for an aircraft, unless that person has had a minimum rest period of 8 hours prior to the beginning of duty.

     (b)     A person shall not schedule a person performing maintenance functions for aircraft for more than 12 consecutive hours of duty.

     (c)     In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for —

     (1)     Up to 16 consecutive hours; or

     (2)     twenty hours in 24 consecutive hours.

     (d)     Following unscheduled duty periods, the person performing maintenance functions for aircraft shall have a mandatory rest period of 10 hours.

     (e)     The AMO shall relieve the person performing maintenance functions from all duties for 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period.

     6.4.1.3  RECORD OF CERTIFYING STAFF

     (a)     The AMO shall maintain a roster of all certifying staff, which includes details of the scope of their authorization.

     (b)     Certifying staff shall be notified in writing of the scope of their authorization.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.4.1.3 for detailed requirements pertaining to records of certifying staff.

6.5     AMO OPERATING RULES

     6.5.1.1  AMO PROCEDURES MANUAL

Note: The purpose of the AMO Procedures Manual is to set forth the procedures, the means, and methods of the AMO. Compliance with its contents will assure compliance with the Part 6 requirements, which is a pre-requisite to obtaining and retaining an AMO certificate.

     (a)     An AMO Maintenance Procedures Manual and any subsequent amendments thereto shall be approved by the Authority prior to use.

     (b)     The AMO Maintenance Procedures Manual shall specify the scope of work required of the AMO in order to satisfy the relevant requirements needed for an approval of an aircraft or aeronautical product for return to service.

     (c)     The AMO procedures manual and any other manual it identifies must —

     (1)     include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel concerned to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety;

     (2)     be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allows personnel to determine current revision status;

     (3)     have the date of the last revision printed on each page containing the revision;

     (4)     not be contrary to any applicable Saint Lucia regulation or the AMO's specific operating provisions; and

     (5)     include a reference to appropriate civil aviation regulations.

     (d)     The Approved Maintenance Procedures Manual for use by the organisation shall contain the following information —

     (1)     a statement signed by the accountable manager confirming that the AMO Procedures Manual and any associated manuals define the AMO's compliance with this regulation and will be complied with at all times;

     (2)     a procedure to establish and maintain a current list of the titles and names of the management personnel accepted by the Authority. The list of personnel may be separate from the Procedures Manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when requested;

     (3)     a list which describes the duties and responsibility of the management personnel and which matters on which they may deal directly with the Authority on behalf of the AMO;

     (4)     an organisation chart showing associated chains of responsibility of the management personnel.

     (5)     a procedure to establish and maintain a current roster of certifying personnel;

Note: The list of certifying personnel may be separate from the procedures manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when requested.

     (6)     a description of the procedures used to establish the competence of maintenance personnel;

     (7)     a general description of manpower resources;

Note: Subparagraphs (1) to (7) constitute the management part of the maintenance organisation Procedures Manual and therefore could be produced as one document and made available to person(s) who should be reasonably familiar with its contents.

     (8)     a description of the method used for the completion and retention of the maintenance records;

     (9)     a description of the procedure for preparing the maintenance release and the circumstances under which the release is to be signed;

     (10)     a description, when applicable, of additional procedures for complying with an AOC holder's maintenance procedures and requirements;

     (11)     a description of the procedures for complying with the service information reporting requirement contained in 6.5.1.9;

     (12)     a description of the procedure for receiving, amending and distributing within the AMO all necessary airworthiness data from the type certificate holder or the type design organisation;

     (13)     a general description of the facilities located at each address specified in the AMO's approval certificate;

     (14)     a general description of the AMO's scope of work relevant to the extent of approval;

     (15)     the notification procedure for AMO to use when requesting the approval of changes to the organisation of the AMO from the Authority;

     (16)     the amendment procedure for the AMO procedures manual, including the submission to the Authority. Copies of all amendments to the manual shall be furnished promptly to all organisations or persons to whom the manual has been issued.;

     (17)     the AMO's procedures, acceptable to the Authority, to ensure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in this subsection;

     (18)     the AMO's procedures to establish and maintain an independent quality system to monitor compliance with the adequacy of the procedures to ensure good quality maintenance practices and airworthy aircraft and aeronautical products. Compliance monitoring must include a feedback system to the person or group of persons specified in 6.4.1.1, and ultimately to the accountable manager to ensure, as necessary, corrective action. Such a system shall be acceptable to the Authority;

     (19)     the AMO procedures for self-evaluations, including methods and frequency of such evaluations, and procedures for reporting results to the accountable manager for review and action;

     (20)     a list of operators, if appropriate, to which the AMO provides an aircraft maintenance service;

     (21)     a list of organisations performing maintenance on behalf of the AMO; and

     (22)     a list of the AMO's line maintenance locations and procedures, if applicable.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.1 for detailed requirements concerning the Procedures Manual and a sample Maintenance Procedures Manual format.

     6. 5.1.2  MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES AND INDEPENDENT QUALITY ASSURANCE SYSTEM

     (a)     The AMO shall establish procedures acceptable to the Authority to ensure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in these Regulations such that aircraft and aeronautical products may be properly released to service.

     (b)     The AMO shall establish an independent quality assurance system, acceptable to the Authority, to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures and by providing a system of inspection to ensure that all maintenance is properly performed.

     (c)     The quality assurance system shall include a procedure to initially qualify and periodically perform audits on persons performing work on behalf of the AMO.

     (d)     Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system to the designated management person or group of persons directly responsible for the quality system and ultimately to the accountable manager to ensure, as necessary, corrective action.

     (e)     The maintenance procedures shall cover all aspects of maintenance activity and describe standards to which the AMO intends to work. The aircraft/aircraft component design, AMO standards and aircraft operator standards must be taken into account.

     (f)     The maintenance procedures should address the provisions and limitations of this Part.

     (g)     The AMO's quality system shall be sufficient to review all maintenance procedures as described in the AMO's Procedures Manual in accordance with an approved program once a year for each aircraft type maintained.

     (h)     The AMO's quality system shall indicate when audits are due, when completed, and establish a system of audit reports, which can be seen by visiting Authority staff on request. The audit system shall clearly establish a means by which audit reports containing observations about non-compliance or poor standards are communicated to the accountable manager.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.2 for a detailed list of inspection items evaluated by the quality system.

     6.5.1.3  CAPABILITY LIST

     (a)     An AMO must prepare and retain a current capability list approved by the Authority. The AMO may not perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an article until the article has been listed on the capability list in accordance with this Part and 6.5.1.1(d)(19).

     (b)     The capability list must identify each article by make and model, part number, or other nomenclature designated by the article's manufacturer.

     (c)     An article may be listed on the capability list only if the article is within the scope of the ratings and classes of the AMO's certificate, and only after the AMO has performed a self-evaluation in accordance with 6.5.1.1(d)(19). The AMO must perform the self-evaluation described in this paragraph to determine that the maintenance organisation has all of the facilities, equipment, material, technical data, processes, housing, and trained personnel in place to perform the work on the article as required by this part. If the AMO makes that determination, it may apply to the Authority for approval to amend the capability list.

     (d)     The document of the evaluation described in paragraph (c) of this section must be signed by the accountable manager and must be retained on file by the AMO.

     (e)     On amending its capability list, the maintenance organisation must send a copy of the list to the Authority.

     (f)     The capability list must be available in the premises for inspection by the public and the Authority.

     (g)     The self-evaluations must be available in the premises for inspection by the Authority.

     (h)     The AMO shall retain the capability list and self-evaluation for 2 years from the date accepted by the accountable manager.

     6.5.1.4  PRIVILEGES OF THE AMO

     (a)     The AMO shall carry out the following tasks as permitted by and in accordance with the AMO maintenance procedures manual —

     (1)     maintain any aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is rated at the location identified in the approval certificate;

     (2)     maintain any aircraft for which it is rated at any location subject to the need for such maintenance arising from unserviceability of the aircraft;

     (3)     describe the activities in support of a specific AOC holder where that AOC holder has requested the services of the AMO at locations other than the location identified on the AMO certificate and the AMO has been rated to maintain the aircraft of that specific AOC holder at the requested location in the AMO operating provisions approved by the Authority; and

     (4)     issue an approval for return to service or a maintenance release in respect of subparagraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection on completion of maintenance in accordance with limitations applicable to the AMO.

     (b)     An AMO shall not contract out the maintenance, preventative maintenance, modification or alteration of a complete type-certificated product unless the subcontractor has been approved by the Authority for the scope of work to be performed in accordance with this Part and, the AMO shall not provide only approval for return to service of a product following contract maintenance.

     (c)     An AMO shall not contract out the maintenance, preventative maintenance, modification or alteration of any other product unless the subcontractor has been approved by the Authority.

     (d)     The AMO may maintain or alter any article for which it is rated at a place other than the AMO, if —

     (1)     The function would be performed in the same manner as when performed at the AMO and in accordance with this Subpart;

     (2)     All necessary personnel, equipment, material, and technical or approved standards are available at the place where the work is to be done; and

     (3)     The maintenance procedure manual of the AMO sets forth approved procedures governing work to be performed at a place other than the AMO.

     6.5.1.5  LIMITATIONS ON THE AMO

The AMO shall maintain an aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is approved only when all necessary housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, approved technical data and certifying staff are available.

     6.5.1.6  CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVICE

     (a)     A certificate of release to service shall be issued by appropriately authorised certifying staff when satisfied that all required maintenance of the aircraft or aeronautical product has been properly carried out by the AMO in accordance with the maintenance procedure manual.

Note: An aeronautical product which has been maintained off the aircraft requires the issue of a certificate of release to service for such maintenance and another certificate of release to service in regard to being installed properly on the aircraft, when such action occurs.

     (b)     A certificate of release to service shall contain —

     (1)     Basic details of the maintenance carried out;

     (2)     The date such maintenance was completed; and

     (3)     The identity, including the authorization reference, of the AMO and certifying staff issuing the certificate.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.6 for detailed requirements concerning a certificate of release to service.

     6.5.1.7  MAINTENANCE RECORDS

     (a)     The AMO shall record, in a form acceptable to the Authority, all details for maintenance work performed.

     (b)     The AMO shall provide a copy of each certificate of release to service to the aircraft operator, together with a copy of any specific airworthiness data used for repairs or modifications performed.

     (c)     The AMO shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any associated airworthiness data for two years from the date the aircraft or aeronautical product to which the work relates was released from the AMO. Note: Where an AOC holder contracts an AMO to keep the aircraft operator's certificates of release to service and any associated airworthiness data, the retention period will be that required by Part 5.

     (d)     Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies an aircraft/aeronautical product shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment —

     (1)     A description and reference to data acceptable to the Authority of work performed.

     (2)     The date of completion of the work performed.

     (3)     The name of the person performing the work if other than the person specified in this subsection.

     (4)     If the work performed on the aircraft or aeronautical product has been performed satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work.

     (5)     The authorised signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions;

     (6)     The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

     (7)     In addition to the entry required by this paragraph, major repairs and major modifications shall be entered on a form, and the form disposed of by the person performing the work, in the manner prescribed by the Authority.

     (e)     No person shall describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or aeronautical component as being overhauled unless —

     (1)     Using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, and reassembled; and

     (2)     It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under a TSO.

Note: For definitions of overhaul see 5.1.1.2(a)(7).

     (f)     No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aircraft or other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been —

     (1)     Disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted;

     (2)     Repaired as necessary; and

     (3)     Reassembled and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that either conforms to new part tolerances and limits, or to approve oversized or undersized dimensions.

Note: For definitions of rebuild see 5.1.1.2(a)(8).

     (g)     No person may approve for return to service any aircraft or aeronautical product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless —

     (1)     The appropriate maintenance record entry has been made;

     (2)     The repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by the Authority has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority.

     (h)     If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data shall be appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed by the Authority.

     (i)     Maintenance record entries for inspections. The person approving or disapproving for return to service an aircraft or aeronautical product, after any inspection performed in accordance with this regulation, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information —

     (1)     The type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection;

     (2)     The date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service; and

     (3)     The authorised signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions;

     (4)     If the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the following or a similarly worded statement – I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in an airworthy condition in accordance with the requirements of the Regulations;

     (5)     If the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement – I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided to the aircraft owner or operator in accordance with the Regulations; and

     (6)     If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this regulation, the entry shall identify the inspection program accomplished, and contain a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

     (j)     Listing of discrepancies. If the person performing any inspection required by this regulation finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives, or other approved data on which its airworthiness depends, that person shall give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.

     6.5.1.8  AIRWORTHINESS DATA

     (a)     The AMO shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work performed from the Authority, the aircraft/aeronautical product design organisation, and any other approved design organisation in the State of Manufacture or State of Design, as appropriate.

Note: The Authority may classify data from another authority or organisation as mandatory and may require the AMO to hold such data.

     (b)     Where the AMO modifies airworthiness data specified in paragraph (a) to a format or presentation more useful for its maintenance activities, the AMO shall submit to the Authority an amendment to the maintenance procedure manual for any such proposed modifications for acceptance.

     (c)     All airworthiness data used by the AMO shall be kept current and made available to all personnel who require access to that data to perform their duties.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.8 for detailed requirements concerning airworthiness data.

     6.5.1.9  REPORTING OF UNAIRWORTHY CONDITIONS

     (a)     The AMO shall report to the Authority and the aircraft design organisation of the State of Design any identified condition that could present a serious hazard to the aircraft.

     (b)     Reports shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the AMO.

     (c)     Where the AMO is contracted by an AOC holder to carry out maintenance, that AMO shall report to the AOC holder any condition affecting the aircraft or aeronautical product.

     (d)     Reports shall be made as soon as practicable, but in any case within 3 days of the AMO identifying the condition to which the report relates.

     6.5.1.10  ECCAA INSPECTIONS

Each certificated approved maintenance organisation must allow the Authority to inspect that approved maintenance organisation and any of its contract maintenance facilities at any time to determine compliance with this part. Arrangements for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications by a contractor must include provisions for inspections of the contractor by the Authority.

     6.5.1.11  PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

     (a)     Each certificated approved maintenance organisation that performs any maintenance, preventive maintenance, modifications for an air operator certificated under Part 9 having an approved maintenance program under Part 9.4.1.12 and approved continuous maintenance program under Part 9.4.1.13 shall perform that work in accordance with the air operator's manuals.

     (b)     Except as provided in paragraph (a), each certificated approved maintenance organisation shall perform its maintenance and modification operations in accordance with the applicable standards in Part 5. It shall maintain, in current condition, all manufacturer's service manuals, instructions, and service bulletins that relate to the articles that it maintains or modifies.

     (c)     In addition, each certificated approved maintenance organisation with an avionics rating shall comply with those sections in Part 5 that apply to electronic systems, and shall use materials that conform to approved specifications for equipment appropriate to its rating. It shall use test apparatus, shop equipment, performance standards, test methods, modifications, and calibrations that conform to the manufacturer's specifications or instructions, approved specification, and if not otherwise specified, to accept good practices of the aircraft avionics industry.

CONTENTS

PART 7

INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT INTRODUCTION TO PART 7

7.1.1  General

     7.1.1.1  APPLICABILITY

     (a)     This Part prescribes the minimum instrument and equipment requirements for all aircraft in all operations.

     (b)     The requirements of this Part use the following key designators —

     (1)     AAC: all aircraft, including Commercial Air Transport and AOC Holders appropriate to the subject of the regulations, e.g., an all aircraft regulation may only refer to seaplanes, but will include CAT and AOC seaplanes;

     (2)     CAT: commercial air transport (includes AOC Holders), appropriate to the subject of the regulations, e.g., a CAT regulation may only refer to seaplanes, but will include AOC seaplanes; and

     (3)     AOC: AOC Holders. Where AOC requirements are redundant to AAC or CAT requirements, or more detailed, the AOC requirements will be followed.

     7.1.1.2  DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Part, the applicable definitions are contained in Part 1 of the Schedule – “General Policies, Procedures and Definitions.”

     7.1.1.3  ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in Part 7 —

     (1)     ADF – Automatic Direction Finder

     (2)     AOC – Air Operator Certificate

     (3)     DH – Decision Height

     (4)     DME – Distance Measuring Equipment

     (5)     ELT – Emergency Locator Transmitter

     (6)     ILS – Instrument Landing System

     (7)     IFR – Instrument Flight Rating

     (8)     IMC – Instrument Meteorological Conditions

     (9)     LRNS – Long Range Navigation Systems

     (10)     MEL – Minimum Equipment List (Part 1)

     (11)     MHz – Megahertz

     (12)     MLS – Microwave Landing System

     (13)     MNPS – Minimal Navigation Performance Specifications

     (14)     NDB – Non-Directional Beacon

     (15)     PBE – Pressure Breathing Equipment

     (16)     RVSM – Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

     (17)     SSR – Secondary Surveillance Radar

     (18)     VFR – Visual Flight Rules (see 8.8.3.1)

     (19)     VMC – Visual Meteorological Conditions

     (20)     VOR – VHF Omnidirectional Range

     (21)     VSM – Vertical Separation Minimum.

     7.1.1.4  GENERAL INSTRUMENT AND EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     [AAC] In addition to the minimum equipment necessary for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness, the instruments, equipment and flight documents prescribed in this Part shall be installed or carried, as appropriate, in aircraft according to the aircraft used and to the circumstances under which the flight is to be conducted.

     (b)     [AAC] All required instruments and equipment shall be approved and installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.

     (c)     [AAC] Prior to operation in Saint Lucia of any aircraft not registered in Saint Lucia that uses an airworthiness inspection program approved or accepted by the State of Registry, the owner/operator shall ensure that instruments and equipment required by Saint Lucia but not installed in the aircraft are properly installed and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the State of Registry.

     (d)     [AAC] An AOC holder shall ensure that a flight does not commence unless the required equipment —

     (1)     meets the minimum performance standard and the operational and airworthiness requirements of all relevant standards;

     (2)     is installed such that the failure of any single unit required for either communication or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to communicate or navigate safely on the route being flown; and

     (3)     is in operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted, except as provided in the MEL.

     (e)     [AAC] If equipment is to be used by one flight crewmember at his station during flight, it shall be installed so as to be readily operable from his or her station.

     (f)     [AAC] When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one flight crew member, it shall be installed so that the equipment is readily operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.

     (g)     The aircraft shall be equipped with spare fuses and bulbs of appropriate ratings for the replacement of those accessible in flight;

     (h)     [AAC] An operator shall not employ electronic navigation data products that have been processed for application in the air and on the ground unless the State of the Operator has approved the operator's procedures for ensuring that the process applied and the products delivered have met acceptable standards of integrity, and that the products are compatible with the intended function of the equipment that will use them. The State of the Operator shall ensure that the operator continues to monitor both process and products.

     (i)     [AAC] An operator shall implement procedures that ensure the timely distribution and insertion of current and unaltered electronic navigation data to all aircraft that require it.

7.1.2  Flight and Navigational Instruments

     7.1.2.1  GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft shall be equipped with flight and navigational instruments which will enable the flight crew to —

     (1)     control the flight path of the aircraft;

     (2)     carry out any required procedural manoeuvres; and

     (3)     observe the operating limitations of the aircraft in the expected operating conditions.

     (b)     [AAC] When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary operating system to an alternative system, the means shall include a positive positioning control and shall be marked to indicate clearly which system is being used.

     (c)     [AAC] Those instruments that are used by any one flight crew member shall be so arranged as to permit the flight crew member to see the indications readily from his station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position and line of vision which he normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path

     7.1.2.2  MINIMUM FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not operate any aircraft unless it is equipped with the following flight and navigational instruments —

     (1)     an airspeed indicating system calibrated in knots;

     (2)     a sensitive pressure altimeter calibrated in feet with a sub-scale setting calibrated in hectopascals/millibars, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be set during flight;

     (3)     an accurate timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds (approval not required);

     (4)     a magnetic compass.

     (b)     No person may operate an aeroplane with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number unless there is a properly installed Mach number indicator.

     7.1.2.3  INSTRUMENTS FOR OPERATIONS REQUIRING TWO PILOTS

     (a)     [AAC] Whenever 2 pilots are required, each pilot's station shall have separate flight instruments as follows —

     (1)     an airspeed indicator calibrated in knots;

     (2)     a sensitive pressure altimeter calibrated in feet with a sub-scale setting calibrated in hectopascals/millibars, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be set during flight;

     (3)     a vertical speed indicator;

     (4)     a turn and slip indicator, or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator;

     (5)     an attitude indicator; and

     (6)     a stabilised direction indicator.

     (b)     The second-in-command's flight instruments shall meet the same requirements for markings, indications and illumination as those required for the pilot-in-command.

     7.1.2.4  IFR INSTRUMENTS

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft when operated in IFR, or when the aircraft cannot be maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instruments, shall be equipped with —

     (1)     an airspeed indicating system with a means of preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing;

     (2)     a turn and slip indicator;

     (3)     an attitude indicator (artificial horizon);

     (4)     a heading indicator (directional gyroscope);

     (5)     a means of indicating whether the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is adequate;

     (6)     a means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature;

     (7)     a rate-of-climb and descent indicator;

     (8)     a minimum of 2 sensitive pressure altimeters with centre drum pointer or equivalent presentations, except for single pilot operations in propeller driven aircraft of less than 5700 Kg MTOW, only one such altimeter is required; and

     (9)     such additional instruments or equipment as may be prescribed by the Authority.

     (b)     [AOC] A person shall not operate an aircraft under IFR, or under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aircraft is equipped with navigation equipment in accordance with the requirements of air traffic services in the area(s) of operation, but not less than —

     (1)     one VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME and one Marker Beacon receiving system;

     (2)     one ILS or MLS where ILS or MLS is required for approach navigation purposes;

     (3)     an Area Navigation System when area navigation is required for the route being a flown;

     (4)     an additional VOR receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on VOR signals; and

     (5)     an additional ADF system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on NDB signals.

Provided that individual requirements of section 7.1.2.4(b) may be met by combinations of instruments or by integrated flight systems or by a combination or parameters on electronic displays provided that the information so available to each required pilot is no less than that provided by the instruments and associated equipment specified.

     (c)     [AAC] All aircraft intended to land in IMC or at night shall be provided with radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to —

     (1)     a point from which a visual landing can be effected; or

     (2)     each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in IMC; and

     (3)     any designated alternate aerodromes.

     (d)     [AOC] A person shall not conduct single pilot IFR operations unless the aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

     7.1.2.5  STANDBY ATTITUDE INDICATOR

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg and aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats unless it is equipped with a single standby attitude indicator (artificial horizon) that —

     (1)     operates independently of any other attitude indicating system;

     (2)     is powered continuously during normal operation; and

     (3)     after a total failure of the normal electrical generating system, is automatically powered for a minimum of 30 minutes from a source independent of the normal electrical generating system.

     (b)     [AAC] When the standby attitude indicator is being operated by emergency power, it shall be clearly evident to the flight crew.

     (c)     [AAC] Where the standby attitude indicator has its own dedicated power supply there shall be an associated indication, either on the instrument or on the instrument pane when this supply is in use.

     (d)     [AAC] If the standby attitude instrument system is installed and usable through flight attitudes of 360^○ of pitch and roll, the turn and slip indicators may be replaced by slip indicators.

     7.1.2.6  INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT FOR CATEGORY II OPERATIONS

The instruments and equipment listed in this subsection shall be installed in each aircraft operated in a Category II operation —

Note: This subsection does not require duplication of instruments and equipment required by 7.1.2.2 or any other provisions of Part 7.

     (1)     Group I —

     (i)     two localizer and glide slope receiving systems;

Note: Each system shall provide a basic ILS display and each side of the instrument panel must have a basic ILS display. However, a single localizer antenna and a single glide slope antenna may be used.

     (ii)     a communications system that does not affect the operation of at least one of the ILS systems;

     (iii)     a marker beacon receiver that provides distinctive aural and visual indications of the outer and the middle markers;

     (iv)     two gyroscopic pitch and bank indicating systems;

     (v)     two gyroscopic direction indicating systems;

     (vi)     two airspeed indicators;

     (vii)     two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, having markings at 20 foot intervals and each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale error and for the wheel height of the aircraft;

     (viii)     two vertical speed indicators;

     (ix)     a flight control guidance system that consists of either an automatic approach coupler or a flight director system;

Note: A flight director system must display computed information as steering command in relation to an ILS localizer and, on the same instrument, either computed information as pitch command in relation to an ILS glide slope or basic ILS glide slope information. An automatic approach coupler must provide at least automatic steering in relation to an ILS localizer. The flight control guidance system may be operated from one of the receiving systems required by paragraph (a)(1)(i).

     (x)     for Category II operations with decision heights below 150 feet either a marker beacon receiver providing aural and visual indications of the inner marker or a radio altimeter.

     (2)     Group II —

     (i)     warning systems for immediate detection by the pilot of system faults in items (a)(1)(I), (a)(1)(iv), (a)(1) (iv) and (a)(1)(ix), of Group I and, if installed for use in Category III operations, the radio altimeter and autothrottle system;

     (ii)     dual controls;

     (iii)     an externally vented static pressure system with an alternate static pressure source;

     (iv)     a windshield wiper or equivalent means of providing adequate cockpit visibility for a safe visual transition by either pilot to touchdown and rollout;

     (v)     a heat source for each airspeed system pitot tube installed or an equivalent means of preventing malfunctioning due to icing of the pitot system.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 7.1.2.6 for Category II instrument and equipment approval and maintenance requirements.

     7.1.2.7  NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT FOR OPERATIONS IN RNP AND MNPS AIRSPACE

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aeroplane in MNPS airspace unless it is equipped with navigation equipment that —

     (1)     continuously provides indications to the flight crew of adherence to or departure from track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track; and

     (2)     has been authorised by the State of Registry for MNPS operations concerned.

     (b)     [AOC] The navigation equipment required for operations in MNPS airspace shall be visible and usable by either pilot seated at his duty station.

     (c)     [AOC] For unrestricted operation in MNPS airspace an aeroplane shall be sufficiently provided with navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will enable the aeroplane to navigate in accordance with the requirements of MNPS navigation.

     (d)     [AOC] For operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aeroplane shall be equipped with one LRNS, unless otherwise specified.

     7.1.2.8  AUTOPILOT

     (a)     A person shall not operate an aircraft above FL 290 unless that aircraft is equipped with an autopilot capable of automatically maintaining a selected flight level.

     (b)     A person shall not operate an aircraft in airspace for which minimum navigation performance specifications are prescribed unless that aircraft is equipped with an autopilot capable of receiving and automatically tracking the selected navigational equipment inputs.

     (c)     For commercial air transport: No person may operate an aeroplane with a single pilot under IFR unless that aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

     7.1.2.9  IFR HELICOPTER STABILIZATION SYSTEM FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

A person shall not operate a helicopter in IFR commercial air transport operations without a stabilization system, unless that helicopter was certificated by the State of Manufacture as having adequate stability without such a system.

     7.1.2.10  EQUIPMENT FOR SPECIAL ALTIMETRY ACCURACY (RVSM)

For flights in defined portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air Navigation Agreement, a reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 300 m (1 000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, an aeroplane —

     (a)     shall be provided with equipment which is capable of —

     (1)     indicating to the flight crew the flight level being flown;

     (2)     automatically maintaining a selected flight level;

     (3)     providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level. The threshold for the alert shall not exceed ± 90 m (300 ft);

     (4)     automatically reporting pressure-altitude;

     (b)     shall be authorized by the State of the Operator for operation in the airspace concerned.

7.1.3  Communication Equipment

     7.1.3.1  RADIO EQUIPMENT

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft that is not equipped with radio equipment —

     (1)     in controlled flight;

     (2)     under instrument flight rules; or

     (3)     at night

     (b)     [AAC] All aircraft operated in VFR as a controlled flight or in IFR shall be provided with radio communication equipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations and on those frequencies prescribed by the Authority, including the aeronautic emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.

     (c)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft in IFR, or in VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aircraft is equipped with communication and navigation equipment in accordance with the requirements of air traffic services in the area(s) of operation, but not less than —

     (1)     two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route including diversions;

          Note: Each system shall have an independent antenna installation except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antennae or other antenna installations of equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required.

     (2)     secondary Surveillance Radar transponder equipment as required for the route being flown.

     (d)     [AOC] When more than one communications or navigation unit is required, each shall be independent of the other to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

     (e)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft under IFR unless it is equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crewmember.

     (f)     [AOC] A person shall not conduct single pilot IFR or night operations unless the aircraft is equipped with a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the control wheel.

     (g)     [CAT] A person shall not operate and aircraft unless equipped with Radio Communication equipment capable of receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.

     7.1.3.2  CREW MEMBER INTERPHONE SYSTEM

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft on which a flight crew of more than one is required unless it is equipped with a flight crew interphone system, including headsets and microphones, not of a handheld type, for use by all members of the flight crew.

     (b)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 15,000 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 unless it is equipped with a crew member interphone system that —

     (1)     operates independently of the public address system except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches and signalling devices;

     (2)     provides a means of two-way communication between the flight crew compartment and each —

     (i)     passenger compartment;

     (ii)     galley located other than on a passenger deck level; and

     (iii)     remote crew compartment that is not on the passenger deck and is not easily accessible from a passenger compartment;

     (3)     is readily accessible for use —

     (i)     from each of the required flight crew stations in the flight crew compartment; and

     (ii)     at required cabin crew member stations close to each separate or pair of floor level emergency exits;

     (4)     has an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for use by flight crew members to alert the cabin crew and for use by cabin crew members to alert the flight crew;

     (5)     has a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a normal call or an emergency call; and

     (6)     provides on the ground a means of two-way communication between ground personnel and at least 2 flight crew members.

     (c)     A person engaged in commercial air transport shall not make use of a hand-held microphone (whether for the purpose of radio communication or of intercommunication within the aircraft) whilst the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace below flight level 150 or is taking off or landing.

     7.1.3.3  ALTITUDE REPORTING TRANSPONDER

     (a)     A person shall not operate an aircraft in airspace which requires a pressure altitude reporting transponder unless that equipment is operative.

     (b)     A person shall not operate an aircraft at altitudes above FL 290 unless it is equipped with a system which is automatically reporting pressure altitudes.

     (c)     For commercial air transport: A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless is equipped with a pressure-altitude reporting transponder which operates in accordance with the requirements of the appropriate air traffic service requirements.

7.1.4  Aircraft Lights and Instrument Illumination

     7.1.4.1  AIRCRAFT LIGHTS AND INSTRUMENT ILLUMINATION

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft operated at night shall be equipped with —

     (1)     a landing light;

     (2)     illumination for all flight instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft;

     (3)     lights in all passenger compartments;

     (4)     a flashlight for each crew member station; (approval not required).

     (5)     aircraft navigation lights;

     (6)     an anti-collision beacon

     (b)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft by day or night unless it is equipped with —

     (1)     two landing lights;

     (2)     an anti-collision light system;

     (3)     illumination for all flight instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft;

     (4)     lights in all passenger compartments; and

     (5)     a flashlight for each crew member station (approval not required).

     (c)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft by night unless, in addition to the equipment specified in paragraph (a) above, it is equipped with —

     (1)     navigation or position lights;

     (2)     two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments; and

     (3)     lights to conform to the International regulations for preventing collisions at sea if the aircraft is a seaplane or an amphibian aircraft.

7.1.5  Engine Instruments

     7.1.5.1  ENGINE INSTRUMENTS

     (a)     [CAT] Unless the Authority allows or requires different instrumentation for turbine engine powered aircraft to provide equivalent safety, a person shall not conduct any commercial air transport operations in any aircraft without the following engine instruments —

     (1)     a fuel pressure indicator for each engine;

     (2)     a fuel flowmeter;

     (3)     a means for indicating fuel quantity in each fuel tank to be used;

     (4)     an oil pressure indicator for each engine;

     (5)     an oil quantity indicator for each oil-tank when a transfer or separate oil reserve supply is used;

     (6)     an oil-in temperature indicator for each engine;

     (7)     a tachometer for each engine;

     (8)     an independent fuel pressure warning device for each engine or a master warning device for all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning circuits from the master warning device.

     (b)     [AOC] In addition to the listed equipment requirements in paragraph (a), reciprocating engine aircraft shall have the following —

     (1)     a carburettor air temperature indicator for each engine;

     (2)     a cylinder head temperature indicator for each air-cooled engine;

     (3)     a manifold pressure indicator for each engine;

     (4)     a device for each reversible propeller, to indicate to the pilot when the propeller is in reverse pitch, that complies with the following:

     (i)     the device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between the normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not give an indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position;

     (ii)     the source of indication shall be actuated by the propeller blade angle or be directly responsive to it.

7.1.6  Warning Instruments and Systems

     7.1.6.1  MACH NUMBER INDICATOR

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number shall be equipped with a Mach number indicator.

     (b)     [AOC] A person shall not operate a turbo jet aircraft unless it is equipped with an installed aural mach overspeed warning.

     7.1.6.2  LOSS OF PRESSURISATION INDICATOR

[AAC] All pressurised aircraft intended to be operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure is less than 376 hpa shall be equipped with a device to provide positive warning to the flight crew of any dangerous loss of pressurisation.

     7.1.6.3  LANDING GEAR: AURAL WARNING DEVICE

     (a)     [AOC] An aeroplane with landing gear shall have a landing gear aural warning device that functions continuously under the following conditions —

     (1)     for aeroplanes with an established approach wing-flap position, whenever the wing flaps are extended beyond the maximum certified approach climb configuration position in the Aeroplane Flight Manual and the landing gear is not fully extended and locked.

     (2)     for aeroplanes without an established approach climb wingflap position, whenever the wing flaps are extended beyond the position at which landing gear extension is normally performed and the landing gear is not fully extended and locked.

     (b)     [AOC] The warning system required by paragraph (a) of this section —

     (1)     shall not have a manual shutoff;

     (2)     shall be in addition to the throttle-actuated device installed under the type certification airworthiness requirements; and

     (3)     May utilise any part of the throttle-actuated system including the aural warning device.

     (c)     [AOC] The flap position-sensing unit may be installed at any suitable place in the aeroplane.

     7.1.6.4  ALTITUDE ALERTING SYSTEM

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate a turbine propeller powered aeroplane with a maximum certified take-off mass in excess of 5,700 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats, or a turbojet powered aeroplane, unless it is equipped with an altitude alerting system capable of —

     (1)     alerting the flight crew on approaching preselected altitude in either ascent or descent; and

     (2)     alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating above or below a preselected altitude.

     (b)     [AAC] For operations in defined portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air Navigation Agreement, a VSM of 300 m (1,000 ft) is applied above FL 290, an aircraft shall be provided with equipment which is capable of providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level. The threshold for the alert may not exceed ±90 m (300 ft).

     7.1.6.5  GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM

     (a)     [CAT] No person may operate an aeroplane in excess of 5700 kg or, authorised to carry more than 9 passengers, unless it is equipped with a ground proximity warning system which has a forward looking terrain avoidance function.

     (b)     [AOC] A ground proximity warning system installed on any aircraft shall be so equip to automatically provide, by means of aural signals which may be supplemented by visual signals, timely and distinctive warning to the flight crew of sink rate, ground proximity, altitude loss after take-off or go around, incorrect landing configuration and downward glideslope deviation.

     (c)     [AOC] A ground proximity warning system installed on any aircraft shall be so equip to provide, as a minimum, warnings of the following circumstances —

     (1)     excessive descent rate;

     (2)     excessive terrain closure rate;

     (3)     excessive altitude loss after take-off or go-around;

     (4)     unsafe terrain clearance while not in landing configuration; and

     (5)     excessive descent below the instrument glide path.

     7.1.6.6  WEATHER RADAR – COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

     (a)     A person shall not operate an airplane having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar or thunderstorm detection device installed.

     (b)     A person shall not operate an airplane having a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar installed.

     (c)     A person shall not begin a commercial air transport passenger flight under IFR, when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous conditions than could be detected by the installed weather radar or thunderstorm detection device may reasonably be expected along the route, unless that equipment is operating satisfactorily.

     (d)     If the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device becomes inoperative on a commercial air transport passenger aircraft en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified in the AOC holder's Operations Manual.

     (e)     An alternate electrical power supply is not required for the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device.

     7.1.6.7  AIRBORNE COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS)

Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that all commercial air transport passenger aircraft be equipped with an ACAS.

     (a)     A person shall not operate a turbine engine aeroplane with a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 15,000 kg or authorized to carry more than 30 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACASII.

     (b)     A person shall not operate a turbine engine aeroplane with a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 5,700 kg or authorized to carry more than 19 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACASII.

     7.1.6.8  FORWARD LOOKING WIND SHEAR WARNING SYSTEM - TURBOJET AIRCRAFT

Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that commercial air transport turbojet aircraft with a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 5,700 Kg or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers, be equipped with a forward looking wind shear warning system.

     (a)     This system should be capable of providing the pilot with an aural and visual warning of wind shear ahead of the aircraft and the information required to permit the pilot to safely commence and continue a missed approach or go-around or to execute an escape manoeuvre if necessary.

     (b)     This system should also provide an indication to the pilot when the limits specified for the certification of automatic landing equipment are being approached, when such equipment is in use.

7.1.7  Flight and Cockpit Voice Recorders

     7.1.7.1  FLIGHT DATA AND VOICE RECORDERS -GENERAL

     (a)     The flight recorders shall be constructed, located and installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the recorders so that recorded information may be preserved, recovered and transcribed. To facilitate location and identification in case of an accident, the cockpit voice recorder shall —

     (1)     be either bright orange or bright yellow;

     (2)     have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location under water; and

     (3)     have an approved underwater locating device on or adjacent to the recorder, which is secured in such a manner that it is not likely to be separated during a crash impact.

     (b)     Flight recorders shall —

     (1)     Be calibrated and have operational checks and evaluations of recordings to ensure the continued serviceability of the recorders, as required by the Authority; and

     (2)     shall meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire protection specifications.

     (c)     Flight recorders shall record in a digital mode.

     (d)     An aircraft required to have both CVR and FDR may alternatively be equipped with —

     (1)     a single combination (CVR/FDR) recorder, for aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less; or

     (2)     two combination (CVR/FDR) recorders, for aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg.

     7.1.7.2  FLIGHT DECK VOICE RECORDERS

     (a)     All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5,700 kg, shall be equipped with a CVR, the objective of which is the recording of the aural environment on the flight deck during flight time.

     (b)     All helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3,180 kg, shall be equipped with a CVR, the objective of which is the recording of the aural environment on the flight deck during flight time. For helicopters not equipped with an FDR, at least main rotor speed shall be recorded on one track of the CVR.

Note: In anticipation of changing international requirements, the Authority recommends that all AOC holders of multi-engined turbine powered aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less install a voice recorder.

     (c)     The flight deck voice recorder shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes. Except that for aircraft, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1^st January 2003, the CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last 2 hours of its operation.

     (d)     If an aircraft is equipped to utilize digital communications with ATS, those communications shall be recorded on either the flight deck voice or flight data recorder. If recorded on the flight data recorder, the minimum recording duration of the digital communications shall be equal to the duration of the CVR and readily correlatable to the cockpit voice recorder recording.

     (e)     All aircraft which utilize data link communications for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1 January 2005 and are required to carry a CVR, shall record on a flight recorder, all data link communications to and from the aircraft. The minimum recording duration shall be equal to the duration of the CVR, and shall be correlated to the recorded cockpit audio. Sufficient information to derive the content of the data link communications message, and, whenever practical, the time the message was displayed to or generated by the crew shall be recorded.

     7.1.7.3  FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

     (a)     All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27,000 kg, shall be equipped with a type I FDR.

     (b)     All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5,700 kg, up to and including 27,000 kg, shall be equipped with a type II FDR

     (c)     All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5,700 kg, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued after 1^st January 2005, shall be equipped with a type IA FDR.

Note: In anticipation of changing international requirements, the Authority recommends that all AOC holders of multi-engined turbine powered aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less install a Type IIA FDR.

     (d)     All helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 7,000 kg, shall be equipped with a type IV FDR.

     (e)     All helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3,180 kg, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued after 1^st January 2005, shall be equipped with a type IVA FDR.

Note: In anticipation of changing international requirements, the Authority recommends that all AOC holders of helicopters with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of over 2700 kg up to and including 7000 kg install a Type V FDR.

     (f)     The use of engraving metal foil and photographic film flight data recorders shall be discontinued.

     (g)     FDRs shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last —

     (1)     Type I and II – 25 hours of operation

     (2)     Type IIA – 30 minutes of operation

     (3)     Type IV, IVA and V – 10 hours of operation.

     (h)     The specific data to be recorded by flight recorders shall be as required in the most current edition of ICAO Annex 6, Part 1, Ch 6.3.

7.1.8  Emergency, Rescue, and Survival Equipment

     7.1.8.1  EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT: ALL AIRCRAFT

[AAC] An item of emergency and flotation equipment shall be —

     (1)     readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located in the passenger compartment, to passengers without appreciable time for preparatory procedures;

     (2)     clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation;

     (3)     marked as to date of last inspection; and

     (4)     marked as to contents when carried in a compartment or container.

     7.1.8.2  EMERGENCY EXIT EQUIPMENT

     (a)     [AOC] A passenger-carrying land plane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more than 6 feet from the ground with the aeroplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground.

     (b)     [AOC] In any aeroplane, a passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and means of opening shall be conspicuously marked by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle.

     (c)     [AOC] A passenger-carrying aeroplane shall have an emergency lighting system, independent of the main lighting system that —

     (1)     illuminates each passenger exit marking and locating sign;

     (2)     provides enough general lighting in the passenger cabin; and

     (3)     includes floor proximity emergency escape path marking for aircraft —

     (i)     having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5700 kg;

     (ii)     which are turbo-jet and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 22,700 kg;

     (iii)     which, in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness, may carry more than 19 passengers.

     (d)     [AOC] A passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside shall be conspicuously marked by a sign visible on the outside of the aeroplane.

     (e)     [AOC] A passenger-carrying aeroplane shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type certified.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 7.1.8.2 for details of the emergency exit equipment requirements.

     7.1.8.3  VISUAL SIGNALLING DEVICES

[AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft over water or across land areas which have been designated by Saint Lucia as areas in which search and rescue will be difficult, unless equipped with such signalling devices as may be appropriate to the area overflown, to include —

     (1)     visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft; and

     (2)     at least one pyrotechnic signalling device for each life raft required for overwater operations.

     7.1.8.4  SURVIVAL KITS

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft across land areas which have been designated by Saint Lucia as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless equipped with enough survival kits for the number of occupants of the aircraft and is appropriately equipped for the route to be flown.

     (b)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft over water at distances which require the carriage of life rafts, unless each raft is equipped with life saving equipment, including means of sustaining life.

     7.1.8.5  EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT.

     (b)     All helicopters on all flights operated across land areas which have been designated by Saint Lucia as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT.

     (c)     All aircraft on all flights operated across land areas which have been designated by Saint Lucia as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT.

     (d)     All aircraft operated on over water flights under the following conditions, shall be equipped with at least two ELTs, one of which shall be automatic —

     (i)     on long range over water flights over routes on which the aircraft may be over water and at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 740 km (400 NM), whichever is the lesser;

     (ii)     on flights away from land suitable for making an emergency landing in the event of the critical power unit becoming inoperative at any point along the route;

     (iii)     on flights away from land suitable for making an emergency landing when 2 power units are inoperative on aircraft having 3 or more power units; and

     (iv)     for all other aircraft, over routes on which the aircraft may be over water and at more than a distance corresponding to 30 minutes or 185 km, whichever is the lesser.

     (e)     [AOC] A person shall not operate an aircraft in extended overwater operations without having on the aircraft a survival type ELT that transmits simultaneously on 121.5 and 406 MHz, and meets the technical standards specified in the current edition of Annex 10.

     (f)     [AOC]At least one survival type ELT shall be located with each life raft carried (See 7.1.8.17).

     (g)     [AAC] Batteries used in ELT's shall be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) when —

     (1)     the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour; or

     (2)     fifty per cent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50% of their useful life of charge) has expired.

     (h)     [AAC] The expiration date for a replacement or recharged ELT battery shall be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter.

Note: The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.

     7.1.8.6  PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

[AOC] The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with portable fire extinguishers accessible for use in crew, passenger, and cargo compartments. Each aircraft shall be equipped as follows —

     (1)     the type and quantity of extinguishing agent shall be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used;

Note: For passenger compartments, the extinguisher shall be designed to minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentrations.

     (2)     at least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently located for use in each Class E cargo compartment which is accessible to crew members during flight, and at least one shall be located in each upper and lower lobe galley;

     (3)     at least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight crew;

     (4)     at least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of 30 or less;

     (5)     for each aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of more than 30, there shall be at least the following number of portable fire extinguishers conveniently located and uniformly distributed throughout the compartment.

     7.1.8.7  LAVATORY FIRE EXTINGUISHER

     (a)     [AOC] A person shall not operate a passenger-carrying transport category aircraft unless each lavatory in the aeroplane is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher for each disposal receptacle for towels, paper, or waste located within the lavatory.

     (b)     [AOC] Built-in lavatory fire extinguishers shall be designed to discharge automatically into each disposal receptacle on occurrence of a fire in the receptacle.

     7.1.8.8  LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR

[AOC] A person shall not operate a passenger-carrying transport category aeroplane unless each lavatory in the aeroplane is equipped with a smoke detector system or equivalent that provides —

     (1)     a warning light in the cockpit; or

     (2)     a warning light or audio warning in the passenger cabin which would be readily detected by a Cabin Crew, taking into consideration the positioning of Cabin Crew throughout the passenger compartment during various phases of flight.

     7.1.8.9  CRASH AXE

[AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate a large aircraft unless it is equipped with a crash axe appropriate to effective use in that type of aircraft, stored in a place not visible to passengers on the aircraft.

     7.1.8.10  MARKING OF BREAK-IN POINTS

     (a)     [AAC] If areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked on an aircraft, such areas shall be marked as shown below, and the colour of the markings shall be red or yellow and, if necessary, they shall be outlined in white to contrast with the background.

     (b)     If the corner markings are more than 2 m apart, intermediate lines 9 cm x 3 cm shall be inserted so that there is no more than 2 m between adjacent markings

     7.1.8.11  FIRST-AID AND EMERGENCY MEDICAL KIT

     (a)     [AOC] A person shall not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with accessible first-aid kits and, on passenger flights in aircraft authorised to carry more than 250 passengers, an approved emergency medical kit for treatment of injuries or medical emergencies that might occur during flight time or in minor accidents.

     (b)     [AOC] The number of first-aid kits to be carried shall be to the following scale —

     7.1.8.12  OXYGEN STORAGE AND DISPENSING APPARATUS

     (a)     [AAC] All aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes requiring the use of supplemental oxygen shall be equipped with adequate oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus.

     (b)     [AAC] The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rate of oxygen flow, and the supply of oxygen shall meet applicable airworthiness standards for type certification in the transport category as specified by the Authority.

     (c)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft at altitudes above 10,000 feet unless it is equipped with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crew members while at their assigned duty station.

     (d)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate a pressurised aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet unless —

     (1)     flight crew member oxygen masks are of a quick donning type;

     (2)     sufficient spare outlets and masks or sufficient portable oxygen units with masks are distributed evenly throughout the cabin to ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crew member and passenger regardless of his location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure

     (3)     an oxygen-dispensing unit connected to oxygen supply terminals is installed so as to be immediately available to each occupant, wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the cabin.

     (e)     [AOC] The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular operation shall be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the Operations Manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency procedures specified in the Operations Manual.

Implementing Standard: See IS: 7.1.8.12 to determine the amount of supplemental oxygen needed for non-pressurised and pressurised aircraft.

     7.1.8.13  PROTECTIVE BREATHING EQUIPMENT

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff mass exceeding 5700 kg or having a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 seats unless —

     (1)     it has PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of at least one flight crew member while on flight deck duty and to provide oxygen for a period of not less than 15 minutes; and

     (2)     it has sufficient portable PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all required cabin crew members and to provide breathing gas for a period of not less than 15 minutes.

     (b)     [AOC] The oxygen supply for PBE may be provided by the required supplemental oxygen system.

     (c)     [AOC] The PBE intended for flight crew use shall be conveniently located on the flight deck and be easily accessible for immediate use by each required flight crew member at their assigned duty station.

     (d)     [AOC] The PBE intended for cabin crew use shall be installed adjacent to each required cabin crew member duty station.

     (e)     [AOC] Easily accessible portable PBE shall be provided and located at or adjacent to the required hand fire extinguishers except that, where the fire extinguisher is located inside a cargo compartment, the PBE shall be stowed outside but adjacent to the entrance to that compartment.

     (f)     [AOC] The PBE while in use shall not prevent required communication.

     7.1.8.14  FIRST AID OXYGEN DISPENSING UNITS

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not conduct a passenger carrying operation in a pressurised aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet, when a cabin crew member is required to be carried, unless it is equipped with —

     (1)     undiluted first-aid oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, may require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation; and

     (2)     a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than 2, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply.

     (b)     [AOC] The amount of first-aid oxygen required in paragraph (a) for a particular operation and route shall be determined on the basis of —

     (1)     flight duration after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than 8,000 feet;

     (2)     an average flow rate of at least 3 litres Standard Temperature Pressure Dry/minute/person; and

     (3)     at least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.

     7.1.8.15  MEGAPHONES

     (a)     [AOC] Each person operating a passenger-carrying aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 19, shall have a portable battery-powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crew members assigned to direct emergency evacuation.

     (b)     [AOC] The number and location of megaphones required in paragraph (a) shall be determined as follows —

     (1)     on aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 19 and less than 100 passengers, one megaphone shall be located in the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal Cabin Crew seat; and

     (2)     on aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, two megaphones in the passenger cabin on each aircraft one installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a normal Cabin Crew seat.

     7.1.8.16  INDIVIDUAL FLOTATION DEVICES

     (a)     [AOC] All Seaplanes on all flights, all other multi engine aircraft operated on flights over water at a distance of more than 93 km (50 NM) from land suitable for making an emergency landing, all single engine aircraft when flying over water beyond gliding distance from shore and all aircraft taking off or landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the Authority, the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a likelihood of a ditching, shall be equipped with one life jacket for each person on board.

     (b)     [AOC] All life jackets shall be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.

     (c)     [AOC] For extended overwater operations, each individual life jacket shall be fitted with an approved survivor locator light.

     (d)     [AOC] On application by an aircraft operator, the Authority may approve the operation of an aircraft over water without individual life jackets, if the aircraft operator shows that the water over which the aircraft is to be operated is not of such size and depth that individual life jackets should be required for the survival of its occupants in the event the flight terminates in that water.

     7.1.8.17  LIFE RAFT

     (a)     [AOC] A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport in extended overwater operations without having on the aircraft enough life rafts with rated capacities and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft.

Note: Unless excess rafts of enough capacity are provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity of the rafts shall accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.

     (b)     [AOC] Life rafts shall be stowed so as to facilitate their ready use in emergency.

     (c)     [AOC] Life rafts shall be equipped with —

     (1)     a survivor locator light;

     (2)     a survival kit;

     (3)     a pyrotechnic signalling device; and

     (4)     an Emergency Locator Transmitter (See 7.1.8.5).

     (d)     [AOC] Life rafts which are not deployable by remote control and which have a mass of more than 40 kg shall be equipped with some means of mechanically assisted deployment.

     7.1.8.18  FLOTATION DEVICE FOR HELICOPTER DITCHING

[AAC] All helicopters flying over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed in the case of performance Class 1 or 2 helicopters, or flying over water beyond auto rotational or safe forced landing distance from land in the case of performance Class 3 helicopters, shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation so as to ensure a safe ditching of the helicopter.

7.1.9  Miscellaneous Systems and Equipment

     7.1.9.1  SEATS, SAFETY BELTS AND SHOULDER HARNESSES

[AOC] An aircraft used in passenger operations shall be equipped with the following seats, safety belts, and shoulder harnesses that meet the following airworthiness requirements for type certification of that aircraft —

     (1)     a seat or berth with safety belt for each person on board over an age of 2;

Note: A berth designed to be occupied by two persons, such as a multiple lounge or divan seat, shall be equipped with an approved safety belt for use by 2 occupants during en route flight only.

     (2)     a flight deck station with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness. The shoulder harness for each station shall incorporate a device which will automatically restrain the occupant's torso in the event of rapid deceleration;

NOTE: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that, when dual controls are installed, all commercial air transport passenger aircraft be equipped with a safety harness for each pilot seat which incorporates a restraining device to prevent the upper body of an incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight controls.

     (3)     A forward or rearward facing (within 15 degrees of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft) seat in the passenger compartment, for the use of each cabin crew member required to satisfy the intent of 9.3.1.7 in respect of emergency evacuation.

     7.1.9.2  PASSENGER AND PILOT COMPARTMENT DOORS

     (a)     [AAC] In all aircraft which are equipped with a flight crew compartment door, this door shall be capable of being locked and, to provide means by which cabin crew can discretely notify the flight crew in the event of suspicious activity or security breaches in the cabin.

     (b)     All passenger carrying aircraft of a maximum certificated take off mass in excess of 45,500 kg or with a passenger seating capacity greater than 60 shall be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door that is designed to resist penetration by small arms fire and grenade shrapnel and, to resist forcible intrusions by unauthorised persons. This door shall be capable of being locked and unlocked from either pilot's station.

     (c)     In all aircraft equipped with a flight crew compartment door in accordance with paragraph (b) —

     (1)     this door shall be closed and locked from the time all external doors are closed following embarkation until any such door is opened for disembarkation, except when necessary to permit access and egress by authorised persons; and

     (2)     means shall be provided for monitoring from either pilot's station the entire door area outside the flight crew compartment to identify persons requesting entry and, to detect suspicious behaviour or potential threat.

     7.1.9.3  PASSENGER INFORMATION SIGNS

[CAT] An aircraft over 5700 kg shall not operate unless it is equipped with —

     (1)     at least one passenger information sign (using either letters or symbols) notifying when safety belts should be fastened and shall, when illuminated, be legible to each person seated in the passenger cabin under all probable conditions of cabin illumination;

     (2)     signs which notify when safety belts should be fastened shall be so constructed that the crew can turn them on and off;

     (3)     at least one passenger information sign (using either letters or symbols) notifying when smoking is prohibited;

     (4)     a sign or placard affixed to each forward bulkhead and each passenger seat back that reads “Fasten Seat Belt While Seated.”

     7.1.9.4  PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM

[AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate a passenger carrying aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 unless a public address system is installed that —

     (1)     operates independently of the interphone systems except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches and signalling devices;

     (2)     for each required floor level passenger emergency exit which has an adjacent cabin crew seat, has a microphone which is readily accessible to the seated cabin crew member, except that one microphone may serve more than one exit, provided the proximity of the exits allows unassisted verbal communication between seated cabin crew members; and

     (3)     is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a cabin crew member at each of those stations in the compartment from which its use is accessible; and

     (4)     is audible and intelligible at all passenger seats, toilets, and cabin crew seats and workstations.

     7.1.9.5  MATERIALS FOR CABIN INTERIORS

     (a)     [AOC] On the first major overhaul of an aircraft cabin or refurbishing of the cabin interior, all materials in each compartment used by the crew or passengers that do not meet the current airworthiness requirements pertaining to materials used in the interior of the cabin for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority, shall be replaced with materials that meet the requirements specified by the Authority.

     (b)     [AOC] Seat cushions, except those on flight crew member seats, in any compartment occupied by crew or passengers shall meet requirements pertaining to fire protection as specified by the Authority.

     7.1.9.6  MATERIALS FOR CARGO AND BAGGAGE COMPARTMENTS

[AOC] A Class C or D cargo compartment greater than 200 cubic feet in volume in a transport category aircraft type certified after January 1, 1958 shall have ceiling and sidewall liner panels which are constructed of —

     (1)     glass fibre reinforced resin;

     (2)     materials which meet the test requirements for flame resistance of cargo compartment liners as prescribed for type certification; or

     (3)     in the case of installations approved prior to March 20, 1989, aluminium.

Note: The term “liner” includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain fire.

     7.1.9.7  POWER SUPPLY, DISTRIBUTION, AND INDICATION SYSTEM

     (a)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with —

     (1)     a power supply and distribution system that meets the airworthiness requirements for certification of an aircraft in the transport category, as specified by the Authority, or

     (2)     a power supply and distribution system that is able to produce and distribute the load for the required instruments and equipment, with use of an external power supply if any one power source or component of the power distribution system fails;

Note: The use of common elements in the power system may be approved if the Authority finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected against malfunctioning.

     (3)     a means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight instruments.

     (b)     [AOC] Engine-driven sources of energy, when used, shall be on separate engines.

     7.1.9.8  PROTECTIVE CIRCUIT FUSES

[AOC] An AOC holder shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft in which protective fuses are installed unless there are spare fuses available for use in flight equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating whichever is the greater.

     7.1.9.9  ICING PROTECTION EQUIPMENT

     (a)     [AAC] Unless an aircraft is certified under the transport category airworthiness requirements relating to ice protection, a person shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft in icing conditions unless it is equipped for the prevention or removal of ice on windshields, wings, empennage, propellers and other parts of the aircraft where ice formation will adversely affect the safety of the aircraft.

     (b)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions at night unless it is equipped with a means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice.

Note: Any illumination that is used shall be of a type that will not cause glare or reflection that would handicap crew members in the performance of their duties.

     7.1.9.10  PITOT HEAT INDICATION SYSTEMS

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with an airspeed indicating system with a heated pitot tube or equivalent means of preventing malfunctions due to either condensation or icing.

     (b)     [AOC] An AOC holder shall not operate a transport category aircraft equipped with a flight instrument pitot heating system unless the aircraft is also equipped with an operable pitot heat indication system that complies with the following requirements —

     (1)     the indication provided shall incorporate an amber light that is in clear view of a flight crew member;

     (2)     the indication provided shall be designed to alert the flight crew if either the pitot heating system is switched “off,” or the pitot heating system is switched “on” and any pitot tube heating element is inoperative.

     7.1.9.11  STATIC PRESSURE SYSTEM

     (a)     [AAC] A person shall not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with 2 independent static pressure systems, vented to the outside atmospheric pressure so that they will be least affected by airflow variation or moisture or other foreign matter and installed so as to be airtight except for the vent.

     (b)     Propeller driven aircraft of less than 5,700 Kg MTOW may have one static pressure system which includes an alternate static source.

     7.1.9.12  WINDSHIELD WIPERS

[AOC] An AOC holder shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft with a maximum certified take-off mass of more than 5700 kg unless it is equipped at each pilot station with a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.

     7.1.9.13  CHART HOLDER

[AOC] All aircraft that have been originally type certificated with chart holders must have one installed. An AOC holder shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft with a chart holder unless it can be illuminated for night operations.

     7.1.9.14  COSMIC RADIATION DETECTION EQUIPMENT

[AOC] An AOC holder shall ensure that aircraft intended to be operated above 15,000 m (49,000 ft) are equipped with an instrument to measure and indicate continuously the dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received (i.e., the total of ionising and neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin) and the cumulative dose on each flight. The operator shall maintain records so that the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew member over a period of 12 consecutive months can be determined. The operator shall maintain records so that the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew member over a period of 12 consecutive months can be determined

     7.1.9.15  MARITIME SOUND SIGNALLING DEVICE

[AAC] All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, where applicable.

     7.1.9.16  ANCHORS

[AAC] All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with one anchor, and one sea anchor (drogue), when necessary to assist in manoeuvring (approval for the anchors not required).

Note.- “Seaplanes” includes amphibians operated as seaplanes.

     7.1.9.17  OUTSIDE AIR TEMPERATURE

A person shall not be permitted to operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with a means of indicating the outside air temperature in the flight crew compartment.

CONTENTS

PART 8

OPERATIONS